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“Counterexample” for the Inverse function theorem


Application of the Inverse Function TheoremQuestion regarding the Kolmogorov-Riesz theorem on relatively compact subsets of $L^p(Omega)$.Looking for a special kind of injective functionInverse Function Theorem and InjectivityFind all $(x,y,z) in mathbbR^3$ where $f(x,y,z)=(xy,xz,yz)$ is locally invertibleInverse Function Theorem and global inversesInverse function theorem local injectivity proofFunction satisfying $(Df(x)h,h) geq alpha(h,h), forall x,h in mathbbR^n$ has an inverse around every point?Jordan Regions and the Inverse Function TheoremHow is this not a proof of the Jacobian conjecture in the complex case?













10












$begingroup$


In my class we stated the theorem as follows:



Let $OmegasubseteqmathbbR^n$ be an open set and $f:OmegatomathbbR^n$ a $mathscrC^1(Omega)$ function. If $|J_f(a)|ne0$ for some $ainOmega$ then there exists $delta>0$ such that $g:=fvert_B(a,delta)$ is injective and ...



This only is a sufficient condition, so is there any function whose jacobian has determinant $0$ at every point but still is injective? If the determinant only vanished on one single point something similar to $f(x)=x^3$ at $x=0$ in $mathbbR$ would do the trick, but if $|f'(x)|=0$ for every $xinOmegasubseteqmathbbR$ then $f$ is constant and not injective. Does the same hold in $mathbbR^n$?



Thanks










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    10












    $begingroup$


    In my class we stated the theorem as follows:



    Let $OmegasubseteqmathbbR^n$ be an open set and $f:OmegatomathbbR^n$ a $mathscrC^1(Omega)$ function. If $|J_f(a)|ne0$ for some $ainOmega$ then there exists $delta>0$ such that $g:=fvert_B(a,delta)$ is injective and ...



    This only is a sufficient condition, so is there any function whose jacobian has determinant $0$ at every point but still is injective? If the determinant only vanished on one single point something similar to $f(x)=x^3$ at $x=0$ in $mathbbR$ would do the trick, but if $|f'(x)|=0$ for every $xinOmegasubseteqmathbbR$ then $f$ is constant and not injective. Does the same hold in $mathbbR^n$?



    Thanks










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      10












      10








      10


      1



      $begingroup$


      In my class we stated the theorem as follows:



      Let $OmegasubseteqmathbbR^n$ be an open set and $f:OmegatomathbbR^n$ a $mathscrC^1(Omega)$ function. If $|J_f(a)|ne0$ for some $ainOmega$ then there exists $delta>0$ such that $g:=fvert_B(a,delta)$ is injective and ...



      This only is a sufficient condition, so is there any function whose jacobian has determinant $0$ at every point but still is injective? If the determinant only vanished on one single point something similar to $f(x)=x^3$ at $x=0$ in $mathbbR$ would do the trick, but if $|f'(x)|=0$ for every $xinOmegasubseteqmathbbR$ then $f$ is constant and not injective. Does the same hold in $mathbbR^n$?



      Thanks










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      In my class we stated the theorem as follows:



      Let $OmegasubseteqmathbbR^n$ be an open set and $f:OmegatomathbbR^n$ a $mathscrC^1(Omega)$ function. If $|J_f(a)|ne0$ for some $ainOmega$ then there exists $delta>0$ such that $g:=fvert_B(a,delta)$ is injective and ...



      This only is a sufficient condition, so is there any function whose jacobian has determinant $0$ at every point but still is injective? If the determinant only vanished on one single point something similar to $f(x)=x^3$ at $x=0$ in $mathbbR$ would do the trick, but if $|f'(x)|=0$ for every $xinOmegasubseteqmathbbR$ then $f$ is constant and not injective. Does the same hold in $mathbbR^n$?



      Thanks







      real-analysis examples-counterexamples inverse-function-theorem






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      asked May 15 at 21:59









      PedroPedro

      688213




      688213




















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          Actually, this is not possible in $mathbbR^n$ either.



          Indeed, if you have any $mathscrC^1$ injective function $f: Omega rightarrow mathbbR^n$, then $f$ is open and a homeomorphism on its image (invariance of domain : https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Invariance_of_domain ).



          From Sard’s theorem (https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sard%27s_theorem ), the set of critical values has null measure in $mathbbR^n$, thus has empty interior, thus the set of critical points has no interior as well.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            1 Answer
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            1 Answer
            1






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            10












            $begingroup$

            Actually, this is not possible in $mathbbR^n$ either.



            Indeed, if you have any $mathscrC^1$ injective function $f: Omega rightarrow mathbbR^n$, then $f$ is open and a homeomorphism on its image (invariance of domain : https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Invariance_of_domain ).



            From Sard’s theorem (https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sard%27s_theorem ), the set of critical values has null measure in $mathbbR^n$, thus has empty interior, thus the set of critical points has no interior as well.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              10












              $begingroup$

              Actually, this is not possible in $mathbbR^n$ either.



              Indeed, if you have any $mathscrC^1$ injective function $f: Omega rightarrow mathbbR^n$, then $f$ is open and a homeomorphism on its image (invariance of domain : https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Invariance_of_domain ).



              From Sard’s theorem (https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sard%27s_theorem ), the set of critical values has null measure in $mathbbR^n$, thus has empty interior, thus the set of critical points has no interior as well.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                10












                10








                10





                $begingroup$

                Actually, this is not possible in $mathbbR^n$ either.



                Indeed, if you have any $mathscrC^1$ injective function $f: Omega rightarrow mathbbR^n$, then $f$ is open and a homeomorphism on its image (invariance of domain : https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Invariance_of_domain ).



                From Sard’s theorem (https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sard%27s_theorem ), the set of critical values has null measure in $mathbbR^n$, thus has empty interior, thus the set of critical points has no interior as well.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Actually, this is not possible in $mathbbR^n$ either.



                Indeed, if you have any $mathscrC^1$ injective function $f: Omega rightarrow mathbbR^n$, then $f$ is open and a homeomorphism on its image (invariance of domain : https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Invariance_of_domain ).



                From Sard’s theorem (https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sard%27s_theorem ), the set of critical values has null measure in $mathbbR^n$, thus has empty interior, thus the set of critical points has no interior as well.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered May 15 at 22:16









                MindlackMindlack

                5,290413




                5,290413



























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