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Expressing CNOT in the eigenbasis of $X$ (Preskill lecture notes eq. 7.6)


Does quantum control allow to implement any gate?Expressing “Square root of Swap” gate in terms of CNOTShorthand notation for the sign flip gateExplicit Conversion Between Universal Gate SetsHow to construct matrix of regular and “flipped” 2-qubit CNOT?Hadamard gate as a product of $R_x$, $R_z$ and a phaseN&C quantum circuit for Grover's algorithmImplementing these $N×N$ matrices on $log N$ qubitsMaking a maximally mixed 2-qubit state in the IBM QCNOT's control qubit preceded by Hadamard: Why is sqrt also applied to target qubit?






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








3












$begingroup$


In chapter 7, equation 7.6 says CNOT works as follows:



CNOT: $frac1sqrt2 (|0rangle + |1rangle )otimes |xrangle rightarrow
frac1sqrt2 (|0rangle + (-1)^x |1rangle ) otimes |xrangle$
, where it acts trivially if the target is $x=0$ state, and it flips the control if the target is the $x=1$ state.



I've looked at a few other resources about CNOT and this is the first time I encountered the $(-1)^x$ term.



Could someone explain to me where that term comes from?



Given that the matrix representation of CNOT is $$
beginpmatrix
1 & 0 &0 &0 \
0 & 1 & 0 & 0\
0 & 0 & 0 & 1\
0 & 0 & 1 & 0
endpmatrix$$
I don't see how that $(-1)^x$ came about.










share|improve this question











$endgroup$


















    3












    $begingroup$


    In chapter 7, equation 7.6 says CNOT works as follows:



    CNOT: $frac1sqrt2 (|0rangle + |1rangle )otimes |xrangle rightarrow
    frac1sqrt2 (|0rangle + (-1)^x |1rangle ) otimes |xrangle$
    , where it acts trivially if the target is $x=0$ state, and it flips the control if the target is the $x=1$ state.



    I've looked at a few other resources about CNOT and this is the first time I encountered the $(-1)^x$ term.



    Could someone explain to me where that term comes from?



    Given that the matrix representation of CNOT is $$
    beginpmatrix
    1 & 0 &0 &0 \
    0 & 1 & 0 & 0\
    0 & 0 & 0 & 1\
    0 & 0 & 1 & 0
    endpmatrix$$
    I don't see how that $(-1)^x$ came about.










    share|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$


      In chapter 7, equation 7.6 says CNOT works as follows:



      CNOT: $frac1sqrt2 (|0rangle + |1rangle )otimes |xrangle rightarrow
      frac1sqrt2 (|0rangle + (-1)^x |1rangle ) otimes |xrangle$
      , where it acts trivially if the target is $x=0$ state, and it flips the control if the target is the $x=1$ state.



      I've looked at a few other resources about CNOT and this is the first time I encountered the $(-1)^x$ term.



      Could someone explain to me where that term comes from?



      Given that the matrix representation of CNOT is $$
      beginpmatrix
      1 & 0 &0 &0 \
      0 & 1 & 0 & 0\
      0 & 0 & 0 & 1\
      0 & 0 & 1 & 0
      endpmatrix$$
      I don't see how that $(-1)^x$ came about.










      share|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      In chapter 7, equation 7.6 says CNOT works as follows:



      CNOT: $frac1sqrt2 (|0rangle + |1rangle )otimes |xrangle rightarrow
      frac1sqrt2 (|0rangle + (-1)^x |1rangle ) otimes |xrangle$
      , where it acts trivially if the target is $x=0$ state, and it flips the control if the target is the $x=1$ state.



      I've looked at a few other resources about CNOT and this is the first time I encountered the $(-1)^x$ term.



      Could someone explain to me where that term comes from?



      Given that the matrix representation of CNOT is $$
      beginpmatrix
      1 & 0 &0 &0 \
      0 & 1 & 0 & 0\
      0 & 0 & 0 & 1\
      0 & 0 & 1 & 0
      endpmatrix$$
      I don't see how that $(-1)^x$ came about.







      quantum-gate pauli-gates






      share|improve this question















      share|improve this question













      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question








      edited Jun 5 at 10:46









      glS

      5,1281944




      5,1281944










      asked Jun 5 at 1:08









      BlackwidowBlackwidow

      1355




      1355




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          5












          $begingroup$

          Expanding on Jalex



          Look at what happens on the possible terms.



          begineqnarray*
          mid 0 rangle otimes mid + rangle &to& mid 0 rangle otimes mid + rangle\
          mid 0 rangle otimes mid - rangle &to& mid 0 rangle otimes mid - rangle\
          mid 1 rangle otimes mid + rangle &to& mid 1 rangle otimes mid + rangle\
          mid 1 rangle otimes mid - rangle &to& (-1) mid 1 rangle otimes mid - rangle\
          endeqnarray*



          where the first 2 are unchanged because the control is $0$ so nothing happens. The third is unchanged because NOT applied to $mid + rangle$ just gives back $mid + rangle$. The last is the only one with change because NOT applied to $mid - rangle$ gives $(-1) mid - rangle$.



          We can summarize these possibilities by knowing that $mid + rangle$ goes with $x=0$ and $mid - rangle$ with $x=1$ as:



          begineqnarray*
          mid 0 rangle otimes mid x rangle &to& mid 0 rangle otimes mid x rangle\
          mid 1 rangle otimes mid x rangle &to& (-1)^x mid 1 rangle otimes mid x rangle\
          endeqnarray*



          The first two become the first one above. And third and fourth, the second above.



          Now add the two together along with a $frac1sqrt2$ prefactor to give



          $$
          frac1sqrt2 ( mid 0 rangle + mid 1 rangle ) otimes mid x rangle to frac1sqrt2 ( mid 0 rangle + (-1)^x mid 1 rangle ) otimes mid x rangle
          $$






          share|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




















            1












            $begingroup$

            Here Preskill is using a physics convention that the states $|xrangle$ are the eigenstates of the $X$ operator. So $|xrangle$ with $x=0$ actually means $|+rangle$ and with $x=1$ actually means $|-rangle$.






            share|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

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              2 Answers
              2






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              5












              $begingroup$

              Expanding on Jalex



              Look at what happens on the possible terms.



              begineqnarray*
              mid 0 rangle otimes mid + rangle &to& mid 0 rangle otimes mid + rangle\
              mid 0 rangle otimes mid - rangle &to& mid 0 rangle otimes mid - rangle\
              mid 1 rangle otimes mid + rangle &to& mid 1 rangle otimes mid + rangle\
              mid 1 rangle otimes mid - rangle &to& (-1) mid 1 rangle otimes mid - rangle\
              endeqnarray*



              where the first 2 are unchanged because the control is $0$ so nothing happens. The third is unchanged because NOT applied to $mid + rangle$ just gives back $mid + rangle$. The last is the only one with change because NOT applied to $mid - rangle$ gives $(-1) mid - rangle$.



              We can summarize these possibilities by knowing that $mid + rangle$ goes with $x=0$ and $mid - rangle$ with $x=1$ as:



              begineqnarray*
              mid 0 rangle otimes mid x rangle &to& mid 0 rangle otimes mid x rangle\
              mid 1 rangle otimes mid x rangle &to& (-1)^x mid 1 rangle otimes mid x rangle\
              endeqnarray*



              The first two become the first one above. And third and fourth, the second above.



              Now add the two together along with a $frac1sqrt2$ prefactor to give



              $$
              frac1sqrt2 ( mid 0 rangle + mid 1 rangle ) otimes mid x rangle to frac1sqrt2 ( mid 0 rangle + (-1)^x mid 1 rangle ) otimes mid x rangle
              $$






              share|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                5












                $begingroup$

                Expanding on Jalex



                Look at what happens on the possible terms.



                begineqnarray*
                mid 0 rangle otimes mid + rangle &to& mid 0 rangle otimes mid + rangle\
                mid 0 rangle otimes mid - rangle &to& mid 0 rangle otimes mid - rangle\
                mid 1 rangle otimes mid + rangle &to& mid 1 rangle otimes mid + rangle\
                mid 1 rangle otimes mid - rangle &to& (-1) mid 1 rangle otimes mid - rangle\
                endeqnarray*



                where the first 2 are unchanged because the control is $0$ so nothing happens. The third is unchanged because NOT applied to $mid + rangle$ just gives back $mid + rangle$. The last is the only one with change because NOT applied to $mid - rangle$ gives $(-1) mid - rangle$.



                We can summarize these possibilities by knowing that $mid + rangle$ goes with $x=0$ and $mid - rangle$ with $x=1$ as:



                begineqnarray*
                mid 0 rangle otimes mid x rangle &to& mid 0 rangle otimes mid x rangle\
                mid 1 rangle otimes mid x rangle &to& (-1)^x mid 1 rangle otimes mid x rangle\
                endeqnarray*



                The first two become the first one above. And third and fourth, the second above.



                Now add the two together along with a $frac1sqrt2$ prefactor to give



                $$
                frac1sqrt2 ( mid 0 rangle + mid 1 rangle ) otimes mid x rangle to frac1sqrt2 ( mid 0 rangle + (-1)^x mid 1 rangle ) otimes mid x rangle
                $$






                share|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  5












                  5








                  5





                  $begingroup$

                  Expanding on Jalex



                  Look at what happens on the possible terms.



                  begineqnarray*
                  mid 0 rangle otimes mid + rangle &to& mid 0 rangle otimes mid + rangle\
                  mid 0 rangle otimes mid - rangle &to& mid 0 rangle otimes mid - rangle\
                  mid 1 rangle otimes mid + rangle &to& mid 1 rangle otimes mid + rangle\
                  mid 1 rangle otimes mid - rangle &to& (-1) mid 1 rangle otimes mid - rangle\
                  endeqnarray*



                  where the first 2 are unchanged because the control is $0$ so nothing happens. The third is unchanged because NOT applied to $mid + rangle$ just gives back $mid + rangle$. The last is the only one with change because NOT applied to $mid - rangle$ gives $(-1) mid - rangle$.



                  We can summarize these possibilities by knowing that $mid + rangle$ goes with $x=0$ and $mid - rangle$ with $x=1$ as:



                  begineqnarray*
                  mid 0 rangle otimes mid x rangle &to& mid 0 rangle otimes mid x rangle\
                  mid 1 rangle otimes mid x rangle &to& (-1)^x mid 1 rangle otimes mid x rangle\
                  endeqnarray*



                  The first two become the first one above. And third and fourth, the second above.



                  Now add the two together along with a $frac1sqrt2$ prefactor to give



                  $$
                  frac1sqrt2 ( mid 0 rangle + mid 1 rangle ) otimes mid x rangle to frac1sqrt2 ( mid 0 rangle + (-1)^x mid 1 rangle ) otimes mid x rangle
                  $$






                  share|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Expanding on Jalex



                  Look at what happens on the possible terms.



                  begineqnarray*
                  mid 0 rangle otimes mid + rangle &to& mid 0 rangle otimes mid + rangle\
                  mid 0 rangle otimes mid - rangle &to& mid 0 rangle otimes mid - rangle\
                  mid 1 rangle otimes mid + rangle &to& mid 1 rangle otimes mid + rangle\
                  mid 1 rangle otimes mid - rangle &to& (-1) mid 1 rangle otimes mid - rangle\
                  endeqnarray*



                  where the first 2 are unchanged because the control is $0$ so nothing happens. The third is unchanged because NOT applied to $mid + rangle$ just gives back $mid + rangle$. The last is the only one with change because NOT applied to $mid - rangle$ gives $(-1) mid - rangle$.



                  We can summarize these possibilities by knowing that $mid + rangle$ goes with $x=0$ and $mid - rangle$ with $x=1$ as:



                  begineqnarray*
                  mid 0 rangle otimes mid x rangle &to& mid 0 rangle otimes mid x rangle\
                  mid 1 rangle otimes mid x rangle &to& (-1)^x mid 1 rangle otimes mid x rangle\
                  endeqnarray*



                  The first two become the first one above. And third and fourth, the second above.



                  Now add the two together along with a $frac1sqrt2$ prefactor to give



                  $$
                  frac1sqrt2 ( mid 0 rangle + mid 1 rangle ) otimes mid x rangle to frac1sqrt2 ( mid 0 rangle + (-1)^x mid 1 rangle ) otimes mid x rangle
                  $$







                  share|improve this answer












                  share|improve this answer



                  share|improve this answer










                  answered Jun 5 at 3:00









                  AHusainAHusain

                  2,3501412




                  2,3501412























                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      Here Preskill is using a physics convention that the states $|xrangle$ are the eigenstates of the $X$ operator. So $|xrangle$ with $x=0$ actually means $|+rangle$ and with $x=1$ actually means $|-rangle$.






                      share|improve this answer











                      $endgroup$

















                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        Here Preskill is using a physics convention that the states $|xrangle$ are the eigenstates of the $X$ operator. So $|xrangle$ with $x=0$ actually means $|+rangle$ and with $x=1$ actually means $|-rangle$.






                        share|improve this answer











                        $endgroup$















                          1












                          1








                          1





                          $begingroup$

                          Here Preskill is using a physics convention that the states $|xrangle$ are the eigenstates of the $X$ operator. So $|xrangle$ with $x=0$ actually means $|+rangle$ and with $x=1$ actually means $|-rangle$.






                          share|improve this answer











                          $endgroup$



                          Here Preskill is using a physics convention that the states $|xrangle$ are the eigenstates of the $X$ operator. So $|xrangle$ with $x=0$ actually means $|+rangle$ and with $x=1$ actually means $|-rangle$.







                          share|improve this answer














                          share|improve this answer



                          share|improve this answer








                          edited Jun 5 at 2:10

























                          answered Jun 5 at 2:05









                          Jalex StarkJalex Stark

                          30939




                          30939



























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