Are inverted question and exclamation mark supposed to be symmetrical to the “normal” counter-parts?Origin and usage of “¿” and “¡”Why did the RAE define the question mark as being an “inverted s”?Proper placement of inverted question markAre there any true nouns containing a hyphen in the Spanish language?Is it acceptable to leave out the inverted punctuation marks?Are there any studies regarding the future viability of the inverted question mark (¿)?Bangs/inverted exclamation marks (¡) and queries/inverted question marks (¿) within a sentenceIs a mixture of exclamation mark and question mark accepted practice, or was it a typo?Why did the RAE define the question mark as being an “inverted s”?
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Are inverted question and exclamation mark supposed to be symmetrical to the “normal” counter-parts?
Origin and usage of “¿” and “¡”Why did the RAE define the question mark as being an “inverted s”?Proper placement of inverted question markAre there any true nouns containing a hyphen in the Spanish language?Is it acceptable to leave out the inverted punctuation marks?Are there any studies regarding the future viability of the inverted question mark (¿)?Bangs/inverted exclamation marks (¡) and queries/inverted question marks (¿) within a sentenceIs a mixture of exclamation mark and question mark accepted practice, or was it a typo?Why did the RAE define the question mark as being an “inverted s”?
Here's how inverted question mark looks like with a bunch of font I've just chosen without any particular system in my mind.
Those are very different fonts however in all of them the inverted question mark is visually very distinctive from the regular question mark. It's sort of looks bulkier as a rule of thumb.
My question would be - when it comes to typography, is reverted exclamation mark supposed to be completely symmetrical to the regular one or it differs in the majority of fonts? If what we see on the picture is completely fine, are there nevertheless some fonts where those marks are symmetrical?
Also, what about handwriting?
UPD: Guys I'm so stupid - like high class stupid, like very very stupid - it was indeed just bold typeface - however even this situation you've provided some very relevant and interesting data so I won't delete this particular question - let it be a monument to my stupidity and your amiability!
puntuación escritura
asked Jun 7 at 15:49
shabuncshabunc
1726
add a comment |
Here's how inverted question mark looks like with a bunch of font I've just chosen without any particular system in my mind.
Those are very different fonts however in all of them the inverted question mark is visually very distinctive from the regular question mark. It's sort of looks bulkier as a rule of thumb.
My question would be - when it comes to typography, is reverted exclamation mark supposed to be completely symmetrical to the regular one or it differs in the majority of fonts? If what we see on the picture is completely fine, are there nevertheless some fonts where those marks are symmetrical?
Also, what about handwriting?
UPD: Guys I'm so stupid - like high class stupid, like very very stupid - it was indeed just bold typeface - however even this situation you've provided some very relevant and interesting data so I won't delete this particular question - let it be a monument to my stupidity and your amiability!
puntuación escritura
asked Jun 7 at 15:49
shabuncshabunc
1726
1
Maybe I'm wrong, but I'd swear all those inverted question marks are bolded while the final ones are not. Compare: ¿?
– walen
Jun 7 at 19:28
Maybe I'm wrong, but this may be an off-topic question as it is not about the Spanish language, but about typography and concerning a symbol that happens to be used in Spanish. You should ask this same question in the User Experience site, they have a "typography" tag this question could fit in.
– Charlie
Jun 7 at 23:34
3
@Charlie In this day and age, I’d say typing Spanish in a way that respects the conventions of fluent speakers is just as important as handwriting. It’s a simple question, but I don’t think it’s unreasonable. I’d say it’s similar to asking about whether a space precedes question/exclamation marks in French, which I think is an important point. Again this is just my opinion, somewhat playing devil’s advocate.
– Chase Ryan Taylor
Jun 7 at 23:50
@charlie actually, it's more on topic at graphic design SE where typography questions are on topic.
– guifa
Jun 10 at 22:23
add a comment |
Here's how inverted question mark looks like with a bunch of font I've just chosen without any particular system in my mind.
Those are very different fonts however in all of them the inverted question mark is visually very distinctive from the regular question mark. It's sort of looks bulkier as a rule of thumb.
My question would be - when it comes to typography, is reverted exclamation mark supposed to be completely symmetrical to the regular one or it differs in the majority of fonts? If what we see on the picture is completely fine, are there nevertheless some fonts where those marks are symmetrical?
Also, what about handwriting?
UPD: Guys I'm so stupid - like high class stupid, like very very stupid - it was indeed just bold typeface - however even this situation you've provided some very relevant and interesting data so I won't delete this particular question - let it be a monument to my stupidity and your amiability!
puntuación escritura
asked Jun 7 at 15:49
shabuncshabunc
1726
Here's how inverted question mark looks like with a bunch of font I've just chosen without any particular system in my mind.
Those are very different fonts however in all of them the inverted question mark is visually very distinctive from the regular question mark. It's sort of looks bulkier as a rule of thumb.
My question would be - when it comes to typography, is reverted exclamation mark supposed to be completely symmetrical to the regular one or it differs in the majority of fonts? If what we see on the picture is completely fine, are there nevertheless some fonts where those marks are symmetrical?
Also, what about handwriting?
UPD: Guys I'm so stupid - like high class stupid, like very very stupid - it was indeed just bold typeface - however even this situation you've provided some very relevant and interesting data so I won't delete this particular question - let it be a monument to my stupidity and your amiability!
puntuación escritura
puntuación escritura
asked Jun 7 at 15:49
shabuncshabunc
1726
asked Jun 7 at 15:49
shabuncshabunc
1726
edited Jun 8 at 0:24
shabunc
asked Jun 7 at 15:49
shabuncshabunc
1726
asked Jun 7 at 15:49
shabuncshabunc
1726
asked Jun 7 at 15:49
shabuncshabunc
1726
1726
1
Maybe I'm wrong, but I'd swear all those inverted question marks are bolded while the final ones are not. Compare: ¿?
– walen
Jun 7 at 19:28
Maybe I'm wrong, but this may be an off-topic question as it is not about the Spanish language, but about typography and concerning a symbol that happens to be used in Spanish. You should ask this same question in the User Experience site, they have a "typography" tag this question could fit in.
– Charlie
Jun 7 at 23:34
3
@Charlie In this day and age, I’d say typing Spanish in a way that respects the conventions of fluent speakers is just as important as handwriting. It’s a simple question, but I don’t think it’s unreasonable. I’d say it’s similar to asking about whether a space precedes question/exclamation marks in French, which I think is an important point. Again this is just my opinion, somewhat playing devil’s advocate.
– Chase Ryan Taylor
Jun 7 at 23:50
@charlie actually, it's more on topic at graphic design SE where typography questions are on topic.
– guifa
Jun 10 at 22:23
add a comment |
1
Maybe I'm wrong, but I'd swear all those inverted question marks are bolded while the final ones are not. Compare: ¿?
– walen
Jun 7 at 19:28
Maybe I'm wrong, but this may be an off-topic question as it is not about the Spanish language, but about typography and concerning a symbol that happens to be used in Spanish. You should ask this same question in the User Experience site, they have a "typography" tag this question could fit in.
– Charlie
Jun 7 at 23:34
3
@Charlie In this day and age, I’d say typing Spanish in a way that respects the conventions of fluent speakers is just as important as handwriting. It’s a simple question, but I don’t think it’s unreasonable. I’d say it’s similar to asking about whether a space precedes question/exclamation marks in French, which I think is an important point. Again this is just my opinion, somewhat playing devil’s advocate.
– Chase Ryan Taylor
Jun 7 at 23:50
@charlie actually, it's more on topic at graphic design SE where typography questions are on topic.
– guifa
Jun 10 at 22:23
1
1
Maybe I'm wrong, but I'd swear all those inverted question marks are bolded while the final ones are not. Compare: ¿?
– walen
Jun 7 at 19:28
Maybe I'm wrong, but I'd swear all those inverted question marks are bolded while the final ones are not. Compare: ¿?
– walen
Jun 7 at 19:28
Maybe I'm wrong, but this may be an off-topic question as it is not about the Spanish language, but about typography and concerning a symbol that happens to be used in Spanish. You should ask this same question in the User Experience site, they have a "typography" tag this question could fit in.
– Charlie
Jun 7 at 23:34
Maybe I'm wrong, but this may be an off-topic question as it is not about the Spanish language, but about typography and concerning a symbol that happens to be used in Spanish. You should ask this same question in the User Experience site, they have a "typography" tag this question could fit in.
– Charlie
Jun 7 at 23:34
3
3
@Charlie In this day and age, I’d say typing Spanish in a way that respects the conventions of fluent speakers is just as important as handwriting. It’s a simple question, but I don’t think it’s unreasonable. I’d say it’s similar to asking about whether a space precedes question/exclamation marks in French, which I think is an important point. Again this is just my opinion, somewhat playing devil’s advocate.
– Chase Ryan Taylor
Jun 7 at 23:50
@Charlie In this day and age, I’d say typing Spanish in a way that respects the conventions of fluent speakers is just as important as handwriting. It’s a simple question, but I don’t think it’s unreasonable. I’d say it’s similar to asking about whether a space precedes question/exclamation marks in French, which I think is an important point. Again this is just my opinion, somewhat playing devil’s advocate.
– Chase Ryan Taylor
Jun 7 at 23:50
@charlie actually, it's more on topic at graphic design SE where typography questions are on topic.
– guifa
Jun 10 at 22:23
@charlie actually, it's more on topic at graphic design SE where typography questions are on topic.
– guifa
Jun 10 at 22:23
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
What I see from the picture you provided is that in the picture the opening sings are kind of in bold font, while the rest of the sentence is not.
Question marks are supposed to be symmetrical (or being each an inverted version of the other). What you found is an oddity of that picture. If you check other posts on this site, you'll notice that there is no difference between opening and closing question/interrogation marks in Spanish.
Check the own documentation from the RAE and you'll see that nothing is mentioned about the opening question or interrogation mark being different from the closing one (except that one is the inverted version of the other: It doesn't say that they are symmetrical, but it is kind of self evident.)
interrogación y exclamación (signos de)
- Los signos de interrogación (¿?) y de exclamación (¡!) sirven para representar en la escritura, respectivamente, la entonación interrogativa o exclamativa de un enunciado. Son signos dobles, pues existe un signo de apertura y otro de cierre, que deben colocarse de forma obligatoria al comienzo y al final del enunciado correspondiente; no obstante, existen casos en los que solo se usan los signos de cierre
Maybe what you found (depending on where you found it) is for learners of Spanish to notice the opening signs, and get used to them. As RAE says
Los signos de apertura (¿ ¡) son característicos del español y no deben suprimirse por imitación de otras lenguas en las que únicamente se coloca el signo de cierre: Qué hora es? Qué alegría verte! Lo correcto es ¿Qué hora es? ¡Qué alegría verte!
What you found is definitely an oddity and not a norm.
In handwriting the same rule applies: one sign is the inverted version of the other, there's no more.
To learn more check other questions like:
- Origin and usage of “¿” and “¡”
- Why did the RAE define the question mark as being an “inverted s”?
answered Jun 7 at 19:28
Diego♦Diego
36.7k1375154
1
Jajaja hemos visto lo mismo :D
– walen
Jun 7 at 19:29
add a comment |
This is a comment that won't fit into the comment box.
In support of Diego's observation that the inverted question mark seems to be in bold:
The first question mark seems to be a simple rotation of the ending question mark.
answered Jun 7 at 21:10
aparente001aparente001
6,09941434
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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What I see from the picture you provided is that in the picture the opening sings are kind of in bold font, while the rest of the sentence is not.
Question marks are supposed to be symmetrical (or being each an inverted version of the other). What you found is an oddity of that picture. If you check other posts on this site, you'll notice that there is no difference between opening and closing question/interrogation marks in Spanish.
Check the own documentation from the RAE and you'll see that nothing is mentioned about the opening question or interrogation mark being different from the closing one (except that one is the inverted version of the other: It doesn't say that they are symmetrical, but it is kind of self evident.)
interrogación y exclamación (signos de)
- Los signos de interrogación (¿?) y de exclamación (¡!) sirven para representar en la escritura, respectivamente, la entonación interrogativa o exclamativa de un enunciado. Son signos dobles, pues existe un signo de apertura y otro de cierre, que deben colocarse de forma obligatoria al comienzo y al final del enunciado correspondiente; no obstante, existen casos en los que solo se usan los signos de cierre
Maybe what you found (depending on where you found it) is for learners of Spanish to notice the opening signs, and get used to them. As RAE says
Los signos de apertura (¿ ¡) son característicos del español y no deben suprimirse por imitación de otras lenguas en las que únicamente se coloca el signo de cierre: Qué hora es? Qué alegría verte! Lo correcto es ¿Qué hora es? ¡Qué alegría verte!
What you found is definitely an oddity and not a norm.
In handwriting the same rule applies: one sign is the inverted version of the other, there's no more.
To learn more check other questions like:
- Origin and usage of “¿” and “¡”
- Why did the RAE define the question mark as being an “inverted s”?
answered Jun 7 at 19:28
Diego♦Diego
36.7k1375154
1
Jajaja hemos visto lo mismo :D
– walen
Jun 7 at 19:29
add a comment |
What I see from the picture you provided is that in the picture the opening sings are kind of in bold font, while the rest of the sentence is not.
Question marks are supposed to be symmetrical (or being each an inverted version of the other). What you found is an oddity of that picture. If you check other posts on this site, you'll notice that there is no difference between opening and closing question/interrogation marks in Spanish.
Check the own documentation from the RAE and you'll see that nothing is mentioned about the opening question or interrogation mark being different from the closing one (except that one is the inverted version of the other: It doesn't say that they are symmetrical, but it is kind of self evident.)
interrogación y exclamación (signos de)
- Los signos de interrogación (¿?) y de exclamación (¡!) sirven para representar en la escritura, respectivamente, la entonación interrogativa o exclamativa de un enunciado. Son signos dobles, pues existe un signo de apertura y otro de cierre, que deben colocarse de forma obligatoria al comienzo y al final del enunciado correspondiente; no obstante, existen casos en los que solo se usan los signos de cierre
Maybe what you found (depending on where you found it) is for learners of Spanish to notice the opening signs, and get used to them. As RAE says
Los signos de apertura (¿ ¡) son característicos del español y no deben suprimirse por imitación de otras lenguas en las que únicamente se coloca el signo de cierre: Qué hora es? Qué alegría verte! Lo correcto es ¿Qué hora es? ¡Qué alegría verte!
What you found is definitely an oddity and not a norm.
In handwriting the same rule applies: one sign is the inverted version of the other, there's no more.
To learn more check other questions like:
- Origin and usage of “¿” and “¡”
- Why did the RAE define the question mark as being an “inverted s”?
answered Jun 7 at 19:28
Diego♦Diego
36.7k1375154
1
Jajaja hemos visto lo mismo :D
– walen
Jun 7 at 19:29
add a comment |
What I see from the picture you provided is that in the picture the opening sings are kind of in bold font, while the rest of the sentence is not.
Question marks are supposed to be symmetrical (or being each an inverted version of the other). What you found is an oddity of that picture. If you check other posts on this site, you'll notice that there is no difference between opening and closing question/interrogation marks in Spanish.
Check the own documentation from the RAE and you'll see that nothing is mentioned about the opening question or interrogation mark being different from the closing one (except that one is the inverted version of the other: It doesn't say that they are symmetrical, but it is kind of self evident.)
interrogación y exclamación (signos de)
- Los signos de interrogación (¿?) y de exclamación (¡!) sirven para representar en la escritura, respectivamente, la entonación interrogativa o exclamativa de un enunciado. Son signos dobles, pues existe un signo de apertura y otro de cierre, que deben colocarse de forma obligatoria al comienzo y al final del enunciado correspondiente; no obstante, existen casos en los que solo se usan los signos de cierre
Maybe what you found (depending on where you found it) is for learners of Spanish to notice the opening signs, and get used to them. As RAE says
Los signos de apertura (¿ ¡) son característicos del español y no deben suprimirse por imitación de otras lenguas en las que únicamente se coloca el signo de cierre: Qué hora es? Qué alegría verte! Lo correcto es ¿Qué hora es? ¡Qué alegría verte!
What you found is definitely an oddity and not a norm.
In handwriting the same rule applies: one sign is the inverted version of the other, there's no more.
To learn more check other questions like:
- Origin and usage of “¿” and “¡”
- Why did the RAE define the question mark as being an “inverted s”?
answered Jun 7 at 19:28
Diego♦Diego
36.7k1375154
What I see from the picture you provided is that in the picture the opening sings are kind of in bold font, while the rest of the sentence is not.
Question marks are supposed to be symmetrical (or being each an inverted version of the other). What you found is an oddity of that picture. If you check other posts on this site, you'll notice that there is no difference between opening and closing question/interrogation marks in Spanish.
Check the own documentation from the RAE and you'll see that nothing is mentioned about the opening question or interrogation mark being different from the closing one (except that one is the inverted version of the other: It doesn't say that they are symmetrical, but it is kind of self evident.)
interrogación y exclamación (signos de)
- Los signos de interrogación (¿?) y de exclamación (¡!) sirven para representar en la escritura, respectivamente, la entonación interrogativa o exclamativa de un enunciado. Son signos dobles, pues existe un signo de apertura y otro de cierre, que deben colocarse de forma obligatoria al comienzo y al final del enunciado correspondiente; no obstante, existen casos en los que solo se usan los signos de cierre
Maybe what you found (depending on where you found it) is for learners of Spanish to notice the opening signs, and get used to them. As RAE says
Los signos de apertura (¿ ¡) son característicos del español y no deben suprimirse por imitación de otras lenguas en las que únicamente se coloca el signo de cierre: Qué hora es? Qué alegría verte! Lo correcto es ¿Qué hora es? ¡Qué alegría verte!
What you found is definitely an oddity and not a norm.
In handwriting the same rule applies: one sign is the inverted version of the other, there's no more.
To learn more check other questions like:
- Origin and usage of “¿” and “¡”
- Why did the RAE define the question mark as being an “inverted s”?
answered Jun 7 at 19:28
Diego♦Diego
36.7k1375154
edited Jun 7 at 20:00
answered Jun 7 at 19:28
Diego♦Diego
36.7k1375154
answered Jun 7 at 19:28
Diego♦Diego
36.7k1375154
answered Jun 7 at 19:28
Diego♦Diego
36.7k1375154
36.7k1375154
1
Jajaja hemos visto lo mismo :D
– walen
Jun 7 at 19:29
add a comment |
1
Jajaja hemos visto lo mismo :D
– walen
Jun 7 at 19:29
1
1
Jajaja hemos visto lo mismo :D
– walen
Jun 7 at 19:29
Jajaja hemos visto lo mismo :D
– walen
Jun 7 at 19:29
add a comment |
This is a comment that won't fit into the comment box.
In support of Diego's observation that the inverted question mark seems to be in bold:
The first question mark seems to be a simple rotation of the ending question mark.
answered Jun 7 at 21:10
aparente001aparente001
6,09941434
add a comment |
This is a comment that won't fit into the comment box.
In support of Diego's observation that the inverted question mark seems to be in bold:
The first question mark seems to be a simple rotation of the ending question mark.
answered Jun 7 at 21:10
aparente001aparente001
6,09941434
add a comment |
This is a comment that won't fit into the comment box.
In support of Diego's observation that the inverted question mark seems to be in bold:
The first question mark seems to be a simple rotation of the ending question mark.
answered Jun 7 at 21:10
aparente001aparente001
6,09941434
This is a comment that won't fit into the comment box.
In support of Diego's observation that the inverted question mark seems to be in bold:
The first question mark seems to be a simple rotation of the ending question mark.
answered Jun 7 at 21:10
aparente001aparente001
6,09941434
answered Jun 7 at 21:10
aparente001aparente001
6,09941434
answered Jun 7 at 21:10
aparente001aparente001
6,09941434
answered Jun 7 at 21:10
aparente001aparente001
6,09941434
6,09941434
add a comment |
add a comment |
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1
Maybe I'm wrong, but I'd swear all those inverted question marks are bolded while the final ones are not. Compare: ¿?
– walen
Jun 7 at 19:28
Maybe I'm wrong, but this may be an off-topic question as it is not about the Spanish language, but about typography and concerning a symbol that happens to be used in Spanish. You should ask this same question in the User Experience site, they have a "typography" tag this question could fit in.
– Charlie
Jun 7 at 23:34
3
@Charlie In this day and age, I’d say typing Spanish in a way that respects the conventions of fluent speakers is just as important as handwriting. It’s a simple question, but I don’t think it’s unreasonable. I’d say it’s similar to asking about whether a space precedes question/exclamation marks in French, which I think is an important point. Again this is just my opinion, somewhat playing devil’s advocate.
– Chase Ryan Taylor
Jun 7 at 23:50
@charlie actually, it's more on topic at graphic design SE where typography questions are on topic.
– guifa
Jun 10 at 22:23