Proving a certain type of topology is discrete without the axiom of choiceTopological proof on discrete topology where $X$ is infiniteIf totally disconnectedness does not imply the discrete topology, then what is wrong with my argument?Topological proof on discrete topology where $X$ is infiniteDiscrete topology on infinite setsWith out the axiom of choice is the following true: If a topology on $X$ contains every infinite subset of $X$, then this is the discrete topology.The bases for the discrete topologyShow that $mathcal T$ is the discrete topology on $X$.Co-countable topology, anticompact and axiom of choiceAre singletons compact in the discrete topology?Why isn't the Cantor set a discrete topology?The Discrete topology on $mathbbR$ is a $T_1$ space and not limit point Compact

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Proving a certain type of topology is discrete without the axiom of choice


Topological proof on discrete topology where $X$ is infiniteIf totally disconnectedness does not imply the discrete topology, then what is wrong with my argument?Topological proof on discrete topology where $X$ is infiniteDiscrete topology on infinite setsWith out the axiom of choice is the following true: If a topology on $X$ contains every infinite subset of $X$, then this is the discrete topology.The bases for the discrete topologyShow that $mathcal T$ is the discrete topology on $X$.Co-countable topology, anticompact and axiom of choiceAre singletons compact in the discrete topology?Why isn't the Cantor set a discrete topology?The Discrete topology on $mathbbR$ is a $T_1$ space and not limit point Compact






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








9












$begingroup$


I came across the following exercise: suppose we have a topology on an infinite set $X$ which contains all infinite subsets of $X$. Prove that the topology is discrete.



Here's a way to approach this: pick two disjoint infinite subsets $A$ and $B$ of $X$. For any $xin X$, $Acupleftxright$ and $Bcupleftxright$ are open and so is their intersection, which is just $leftxright$. Hence all singletons are open and the topology is discrete.

This proof is essentially the same as the one here.



However, I don't quite like this argument, mainly because of the step where we say "pick two disjoint infinite subsets of $X$". This isn't really a problem in ZFC since it's possible to prove that every infinite set has an infinite countable subset and after this is established, picking $A$ and $B$ is simple. But what if I'm working without the axiom of choice?



So, my question is: can it be proved without AC that every infinite set contains two disjoint infinite subsets or is it perhaps possible to avoid this altogether by proving the topology is discrete in another way (not reliant on AC)?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If I recall correctly (this isn't an answer because I'm not sure) it is consistent with ZF that there is an infinite set such that every subset is finite or cofinite. If such a set exists, then the set of infinite subsets of $X$ (+ $emptyset$) is a topology (stable under finite unions because cofinite sets are), and it's not discrete
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Jun 20 at 17:28

















9












$begingroup$


I came across the following exercise: suppose we have a topology on an infinite set $X$ which contains all infinite subsets of $X$. Prove that the topology is discrete.



Here's a way to approach this: pick two disjoint infinite subsets $A$ and $B$ of $X$. For any $xin X$, $Acupleftxright$ and $Bcupleftxright$ are open and so is their intersection, which is just $leftxright$. Hence all singletons are open and the topology is discrete.

This proof is essentially the same as the one here.



However, I don't quite like this argument, mainly because of the step where we say "pick two disjoint infinite subsets of $X$". This isn't really a problem in ZFC since it's possible to prove that every infinite set has an infinite countable subset and after this is established, picking $A$ and $B$ is simple. But what if I'm working without the axiom of choice?



So, my question is: can it be proved without AC that every infinite set contains two disjoint infinite subsets or is it perhaps possible to avoid this altogether by proving the topology is discrete in another way (not reliant on AC)?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If I recall correctly (this isn't an answer because I'm not sure) it is consistent with ZF that there is an infinite set such that every subset is finite or cofinite. If such a set exists, then the set of infinite subsets of $X$ (+ $emptyset$) is a topology (stable under finite unions because cofinite sets are), and it's not discrete
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Jun 20 at 17:28













9












9








9


2



$begingroup$


I came across the following exercise: suppose we have a topology on an infinite set $X$ which contains all infinite subsets of $X$. Prove that the topology is discrete.



Here's a way to approach this: pick two disjoint infinite subsets $A$ and $B$ of $X$. For any $xin X$, $Acupleftxright$ and $Bcupleftxright$ are open and so is their intersection, which is just $leftxright$. Hence all singletons are open and the topology is discrete.

This proof is essentially the same as the one here.



However, I don't quite like this argument, mainly because of the step where we say "pick two disjoint infinite subsets of $X$". This isn't really a problem in ZFC since it's possible to prove that every infinite set has an infinite countable subset and after this is established, picking $A$ and $B$ is simple. But what if I'm working without the axiom of choice?



So, my question is: can it be proved without AC that every infinite set contains two disjoint infinite subsets or is it perhaps possible to avoid this altogether by proving the topology is discrete in another way (not reliant on AC)?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I came across the following exercise: suppose we have a topology on an infinite set $X$ which contains all infinite subsets of $X$. Prove that the topology is discrete.



Here's a way to approach this: pick two disjoint infinite subsets $A$ and $B$ of $X$. For any $xin X$, $Acupleftxright$ and $Bcupleftxright$ are open and so is their intersection, which is just $leftxright$. Hence all singletons are open and the topology is discrete.

This proof is essentially the same as the one here.



However, I don't quite like this argument, mainly because of the step where we say "pick two disjoint infinite subsets of $X$". This isn't really a problem in ZFC since it's possible to prove that every infinite set has an infinite countable subset and after this is established, picking $A$ and $B$ is simple. But what if I'm working without the axiom of choice?



So, my question is: can it be proved without AC that every infinite set contains two disjoint infinite subsets or is it perhaps possible to avoid this altogether by proving the topology is discrete in another way (not reliant on AC)?







general-topology set-theory axiom-of-choice






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jun 20 at 17:53







J_P

















asked Jun 20 at 17:18









J_PJ_P

1,2511 silver badge13 bronze badges




1,2511 silver badge13 bronze badges







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If I recall correctly (this isn't an answer because I'm not sure) it is consistent with ZF that there is an infinite set such that every subset is finite or cofinite. If such a set exists, then the set of infinite subsets of $X$ (+ $emptyset$) is a topology (stable under finite unions because cofinite sets are), and it's not discrete
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Jun 20 at 17:28












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If I recall correctly (this isn't an answer because I'm not sure) it is consistent with ZF that there is an infinite set such that every subset is finite or cofinite. If such a set exists, then the set of infinite subsets of $X$ (+ $emptyset$) is a topology (stable under finite unions because cofinite sets are), and it's not discrete
    $endgroup$
    – Max
    Jun 20 at 17:28







1




1




$begingroup$
If I recall correctly (this isn't an answer because I'm not sure) it is consistent with ZF that there is an infinite set such that every subset is finite or cofinite. If such a set exists, then the set of infinite subsets of $X$ (+ $emptyset$) is a topology (stable under finite unions because cofinite sets are), and it's not discrete
$endgroup$
– Max
Jun 20 at 17:28




$begingroup$
If I recall correctly (this isn't an answer because I'm not sure) it is consistent with ZF that there is an infinite set such that every subset is finite or cofinite. If such a set exists, then the set of infinite subsets of $X$ (+ $emptyset$) is a topology (stable under finite unions because cofinite sets are), and it's not discrete
$endgroup$
– Max
Jun 20 at 17:28










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















10












$begingroup$

No, it is (relatively) consistent with ZF that there exists an infinite set that does not have two disjoint infinite subsets. Such as set is called amorphous.



If $X$ is an amorphous set, then the topology you describe is the cofinite topology, which is not discrete.



So you need some form of choice to prove your goal.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Interesting....
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jun 20 at 17:29










  • $begingroup$
    This is surprising! I guess with or without AC, strange things happen
    $endgroup$
    – J_P
    Jun 20 at 17:33











  • $begingroup$
    @J_P without, more strange things, I think.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Jun 20 at 22:30






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @DanielWainfleet So if I understand correctly, there exists a model of ZF (a model being a particular realization of ZF) in which, say, amorphous sets exist, but there is no way to prove their existence just from ZF axioms alone.
    $endgroup$
    – J_P
    Jun 21 at 14:25






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @J_P: Correct -- you can't prove the existence of such sets from ZF, because such a proof would still be valid in ZFC (adding more axioms can never rob an existing proof of validity) and create a contradiction with AC proving that amorphous sets don't exist.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Jun 21 at 14:30













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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









10












$begingroup$

No, it is (relatively) consistent with ZF that there exists an infinite set that does not have two disjoint infinite subsets. Such as set is called amorphous.



If $X$ is an amorphous set, then the topology you describe is the cofinite topology, which is not discrete.



So you need some form of choice to prove your goal.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Interesting....
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jun 20 at 17:29










  • $begingroup$
    This is surprising! I guess with or without AC, strange things happen
    $endgroup$
    – J_P
    Jun 20 at 17:33











  • $begingroup$
    @J_P without, more strange things, I think.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Jun 20 at 22:30






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @DanielWainfleet So if I understand correctly, there exists a model of ZF (a model being a particular realization of ZF) in which, say, amorphous sets exist, but there is no way to prove their existence just from ZF axioms alone.
    $endgroup$
    – J_P
    Jun 21 at 14:25






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @J_P: Correct -- you can't prove the existence of such sets from ZF, because such a proof would still be valid in ZFC (adding more axioms can never rob an existing proof of validity) and create a contradiction with AC proving that amorphous sets don't exist.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Jun 21 at 14:30















10












$begingroup$

No, it is (relatively) consistent with ZF that there exists an infinite set that does not have two disjoint infinite subsets. Such as set is called amorphous.



If $X$ is an amorphous set, then the topology you describe is the cofinite topology, which is not discrete.



So you need some form of choice to prove your goal.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Interesting....
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jun 20 at 17:29










  • $begingroup$
    This is surprising! I guess with or without AC, strange things happen
    $endgroup$
    – J_P
    Jun 20 at 17:33











  • $begingroup$
    @J_P without, more strange things, I think.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Jun 20 at 22:30






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @DanielWainfleet So if I understand correctly, there exists a model of ZF (a model being a particular realization of ZF) in which, say, amorphous sets exist, but there is no way to prove their existence just from ZF axioms alone.
    $endgroup$
    – J_P
    Jun 21 at 14:25






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @J_P: Correct -- you can't prove the existence of such sets from ZF, because such a proof would still be valid in ZFC (adding more axioms can never rob an existing proof of validity) and create a contradiction with AC proving that amorphous sets don't exist.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Jun 21 at 14:30













10












10








10





$begingroup$

No, it is (relatively) consistent with ZF that there exists an infinite set that does not have two disjoint infinite subsets. Such as set is called amorphous.



If $X$ is an amorphous set, then the topology you describe is the cofinite topology, which is not discrete.



So you need some form of choice to prove your goal.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



No, it is (relatively) consistent with ZF that there exists an infinite set that does not have two disjoint infinite subsets. Such as set is called amorphous.



If $X$ is an amorphous set, then the topology you describe is the cofinite topology, which is not discrete.



So you need some form of choice to prove your goal.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jun 20 at 17:25









Henning MakholmHenning Makholm

250k17 gold badges329 silver badges570 bronze badges




250k17 gold badges329 silver badges570 bronze badges











  • $begingroup$
    Interesting....
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jun 20 at 17:29










  • $begingroup$
    This is surprising! I guess with or without AC, strange things happen
    $endgroup$
    – J_P
    Jun 20 at 17:33











  • $begingroup$
    @J_P without, more strange things, I think.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Jun 20 at 22:30






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @DanielWainfleet So if I understand correctly, there exists a model of ZF (a model being a particular realization of ZF) in which, say, amorphous sets exist, but there is no way to prove their existence just from ZF axioms alone.
    $endgroup$
    – J_P
    Jun 21 at 14:25






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @J_P: Correct -- you can't prove the existence of such sets from ZF, because such a proof would still be valid in ZFC (adding more axioms can never rob an existing proof of validity) and create a contradiction with AC proving that amorphous sets don't exist.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Jun 21 at 14:30
















  • $begingroup$
    Interesting....
    $endgroup$
    – Randall
    Jun 20 at 17:29










  • $begingroup$
    This is surprising! I guess with or without AC, strange things happen
    $endgroup$
    – J_P
    Jun 20 at 17:33











  • $begingroup$
    @J_P without, more strange things, I think.
    $endgroup$
    – Henno Brandsma
    Jun 20 at 22:30






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @DanielWainfleet So if I understand correctly, there exists a model of ZF (a model being a particular realization of ZF) in which, say, amorphous sets exist, but there is no way to prove their existence just from ZF axioms alone.
    $endgroup$
    – J_P
    Jun 21 at 14:25






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @J_P: Correct -- you can't prove the existence of such sets from ZF, because such a proof would still be valid in ZFC (adding more axioms can never rob an existing proof of validity) and create a contradiction with AC proving that amorphous sets don't exist.
    $endgroup$
    – Henning Makholm
    Jun 21 at 14:30















$begingroup$
Interesting....
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jun 20 at 17:29




$begingroup$
Interesting....
$endgroup$
– Randall
Jun 20 at 17:29












$begingroup$
This is surprising! I guess with or without AC, strange things happen
$endgroup$
– J_P
Jun 20 at 17:33





$begingroup$
This is surprising! I guess with or without AC, strange things happen
$endgroup$
– J_P
Jun 20 at 17:33













$begingroup$
@J_P without, more strange things, I think.
$endgroup$
– Henno Brandsma
Jun 20 at 22:30




$begingroup$
@J_P without, more strange things, I think.
$endgroup$
– Henno Brandsma
Jun 20 at 22:30




1




1




$begingroup$
@DanielWainfleet So if I understand correctly, there exists a model of ZF (a model being a particular realization of ZF) in which, say, amorphous sets exist, but there is no way to prove their existence just from ZF axioms alone.
$endgroup$
– J_P
Jun 21 at 14:25




$begingroup$
@DanielWainfleet So if I understand correctly, there exists a model of ZF (a model being a particular realization of ZF) in which, say, amorphous sets exist, but there is no way to prove their existence just from ZF axioms alone.
$endgroup$
– J_P
Jun 21 at 14:25




1




1




$begingroup$
@J_P: Correct -- you can't prove the existence of such sets from ZF, because such a proof would still be valid in ZFC (adding more axioms can never rob an existing proof of validity) and create a contradiction with AC proving that amorphous sets don't exist.
$endgroup$
– Henning Makholm
Jun 21 at 14:30




$begingroup$
@J_P: Correct -- you can't prove the existence of such sets from ZF, because such a proof would still be valid in ZFC (adding more axioms can never rob an existing proof of validity) and create a contradiction with AC proving that amorphous sets don't exist.
$endgroup$
– Henning Makholm
Jun 21 at 14:30

















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