Question about “Approaching Zero and Limits” in the Intuitive Proof of the Derivative of SineQuestion about limits involving exponents and basesSome question about sine functionsFlash question about expanding the derivative definitionThe 'sine and cosine theorem' - formulas for the sum and differenceQuestion about the derivative definitionProof of the derivative of sineQuestion about two-sided limitsEpsilon-Delta and Limits Approaching Infinity

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Question about “Approaching Zero and Limits” in the Intuitive Proof of the Derivative of Sine


Question about limits involving exponents and basesSome question about sine functionsFlash question about expanding the derivative definitionThe 'sine and cosine theorem' - formulas for the sum and differenceQuestion about the derivative definitionProof of the derivative of sineQuestion about two-sided limitsEpsilon-Delta and Limits Approaching Infinity






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








7












$begingroup$


I'm a high school student hoping to self-study some introductory calculus over the summer. While studying, I came across this intuitive proof of the derivative of the sine function, using trig and the unit circle...



enter image description here



Image of the proof #2



As in the picture, as dθ approaches zero, angles A and B will approach 90° -- allowing triangle ABC to be "approaching" similar to triangle BDE, but this would mean you would never get the exact angles for triangle ABC; thus, never the exact ratio of sine and cosine in order to complete the proof.



Is this small (even negligible) inaccuracy inherent to calculus, or is there a flaw in my understanding?



P.S. Please forgive me if this is a stupid/far-too-basic question.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    It has to do with the definition of limit. Do you know the formal definition?
    $endgroup$
    – quasi
    Aug 11 at 21:33







  • 6




    $begingroup$
    Minor comment, you forgot to label the ABCDE in the diagrams (or at least, I cannot see them since the apparently hand drawn picture is quite small).
    $endgroup$
    – pre-kidney
    Aug 11 at 21:50

















7












$begingroup$


I'm a high school student hoping to self-study some introductory calculus over the summer. While studying, I came across this intuitive proof of the derivative of the sine function, using trig and the unit circle...



enter image description here



Image of the proof #2



As in the picture, as dθ approaches zero, angles A and B will approach 90° -- allowing triangle ABC to be "approaching" similar to triangle BDE, but this would mean you would never get the exact angles for triangle ABC; thus, never the exact ratio of sine and cosine in order to complete the proof.



Is this small (even negligible) inaccuracy inherent to calculus, or is there a flaw in my understanding?



P.S. Please forgive me if this is a stupid/far-too-basic question.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    It has to do with the definition of limit. Do you know the formal definition?
    $endgroup$
    – quasi
    Aug 11 at 21:33







  • 6




    $begingroup$
    Minor comment, you forgot to label the ABCDE in the diagrams (or at least, I cannot see them since the apparently hand drawn picture is quite small).
    $endgroup$
    – pre-kidney
    Aug 11 at 21:50













7












7








7





$begingroup$


I'm a high school student hoping to self-study some introductory calculus over the summer. While studying, I came across this intuitive proof of the derivative of the sine function, using trig and the unit circle...



enter image description here



Image of the proof #2



As in the picture, as dθ approaches zero, angles A and B will approach 90° -- allowing triangle ABC to be "approaching" similar to triangle BDE, but this would mean you would never get the exact angles for triangle ABC; thus, never the exact ratio of sine and cosine in order to complete the proof.



Is this small (even negligible) inaccuracy inherent to calculus, or is there a flaw in my understanding?



P.S. Please forgive me if this is a stupid/far-too-basic question.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'm a high school student hoping to self-study some introductory calculus over the summer. While studying, I came across this intuitive proof of the derivative of the sine function, using trig and the unit circle...



enter image description here



Image of the proof #2



As in the picture, as dθ approaches zero, angles A and B will approach 90° -- allowing triangle ABC to be "approaching" similar to triangle BDE, but this would mean you would never get the exact angles for triangle ABC; thus, never the exact ratio of sine and cosine in order to complete the proof.



Is this small (even negligible) inaccuracy inherent to calculus, or is there a flaw in my understanding?



P.S. Please forgive me if this is a stupid/far-too-basic question.







calculus algebra-precalculus definition






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 11 at 21:34









Blue

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asked Aug 11 at 21:29









FrankFrank

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  • $begingroup$
    It has to do with the definition of limit. Do you know the formal definition?
    $endgroup$
    – quasi
    Aug 11 at 21:33







  • 6




    $begingroup$
    Minor comment, you forgot to label the ABCDE in the diagrams (or at least, I cannot see them since the apparently hand drawn picture is quite small).
    $endgroup$
    – pre-kidney
    Aug 11 at 21:50
















  • $begingroup$
    It has to do with the definition of limit. Do you know the formal definition?
    $endgroup$
    – quasi
    Aug 11 at 21:33







  • 6




    $begingroup$
    Minor comment, you forgot to label the ABCDE in the diagrams (or at least, I cannot see them since the apparently hand drawn picture is quite small).
    $endgroup$
    – pre-kidney
    Aug 11 at 21:50















$begingroup$
It has to do with the definition of limit. Do you know the formal definition?
$endgroup$
– quasi
Aug 11 at 21:33





$begingroup$
It has to do with the definition of limit. Do you know the formal definition?
$endgroup$
– quasi
Aug 11 at 21:33





6




6




$begingroup$
Minor comment, you forgot to label the ABCDE in the diagrams (or at least, I cannot see them since the apparently hand drawn picture is quite small).
$endgroup$
– pre-kidney
Aug 11 at 21:50




$begingroup$
Minor comment, you forgot to label the ABCDE in the diagrams (or at least, I cannot see them since the apparently hand drawn picture is quite small).
$endgroup$
– pre-kidney
Aug 11 at 21:50










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















11













$begingroup$

The inaccuracy is of lower order than the main quantities of interest, and becomes fully accurate in the limit. The key to this question is understanding precisely what the limit means, and for this I direct you towards the rigorous meaning of a limit. Note that an initial course in calculus will include many such "hand-wavy" arguments that seem to be slightly inaccurate, and it is typically in a later course (often called "analysis" or "real analysis") following calculus where this rigorous definition is presented and results in calculus are put on a more solid footing.



For a more concrete instance of this, consider an expression like $x+x^2$ in the limit as $x$ tends to $0$. Now of course, $x+x^2$ does not equal $x$, but now if you imagine substituting a super tiny value for $x$, you will see that $x$ becomes a great approximation for $x(1+x)=x+x^2$. Note that this is stronger than saying that $x$ and $x+x^2$ have the same limit as $x$ goes to $0$, since $x^2$ also has this property - yet $x^2$ is a terrible approximation for $x+x^2$ in the limit when $x$ goes to $0$, since $x^2$ is much, much, much smaller than $x$. (I know this example is somewhat contrived, but it actually includes the main ideas in a particularly simple setting.)






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$










  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I want to point out, that "real analysis" does not mean that it is somewhat better than a regular "analysis" class. It just refers to the real numbers, not complex ones.
    $endgroup$
    – infinitezero
    Aug 12 at 13:52


















5













$begingroup$

Proving a calculus theorem using pictures is not a very good idea.



While you may get a vague outline from the graphs, you also get confused when concepts like limits are involved.



If you study the definition of limits and read the proof of this theorem based on the exact definition, you will get a clear understanding as to why derivative of $sin x$ is $cos x$ and why the picture does not do a good job.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$














  • $begingroup$
    I disagree. I think pictures are a good place to begin understanding calculus and limits, as long as it's clear that they are just pictures and can be replaced by more formal arguments in later study.
    $endgroup$
    – Ethan Bolker
    Aug 12 at 14:52






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I agree that graphs and pictures are useful tools if they come with the actual proof. You have seen pictures explaining the product rule or integration by parts or Young's theorem. The student's question is what happens to the little corner piece ? The picture gives them the impression that something is not quite accurate.
    $endgroup$
    – Mohammad Riazi-Kermani
    Aug 12 at 14:59


















1













$begingroup$

Here's another way to picture the derivative of sine. This argument is for sine specifically, and doesn't appeal to more general machinery such as limits or even the definition of the derivative.



Imagine the $(x, y)$ plane $mathbbR^2$. Next imagine the unit circle. This is the set of points with distance $1$ from the origin.



The unit circle is defined below and named $U$ .



$$ U stackrelmathrmdef= left (x, y) ; $$



This notation is called set-builder notation if you haven't seen it before.



Imagine starting at the point $(0, 1)$, which is due east if the top of the graph is north, and travelling counter-clockwise around the circle at a constant velocity.



The circumference of the unit circle is $2pi$, so let's normalize our speed so it takes exactly $2pi$ seconds to travel around the circle once.



Our position at any given point in time is given by $s(t)$ ...



$$ s(t) stackrelmathrmdef= (cos(t), sin(t)) $$



$t$ is the amount of time in seconds that we have been travelling around the circle. It is also the angle, in radians, between our current position, $(0, 0)$ (the origin), and $(0, 1)$ (our starting point).



Our velocity is always perpendicular to our position if we're tracing out a circle as opposed to some other spiral-like shape. This gives us two options for what the formula for our velocity $v$ could be, let's call them $v_1$ and $v_2$ .



Note that a slope $m'$ is perpendicular to $m$ if and only if $m' = -frac1m$ . There are other possibilities for the velocity formula such as $v_3(t) = (-sin(t)cos(t),,, 1) $, but all those other possibilities do not satisfy $mathrmlength(v_3(t)) = 1$ .



Here are the candidates.



$$ v_1(t) stackrelmathrmdef= (-sin(t), cos(t)) $$



$$ v_2(t) stackrelmathrmdef= (sin(t), -cos(t)) $$



$v_2$ is ruled out because it gives us a velocity of $(0, -1)$ at $t=0$, which means we are travelling clockwise around the circle instead of travelling counterclockwise. So:



$$ fracmathrmds(t)mathrmdt = v(t) = (-sin(t), cos(t)) $$



So, if we look at our $y$ coordinate alone, we get $sin(t)$ ... our velocity at any given point time in the $y$ direction is $cos(t)$ as desired.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$






















    -1













    $begingroup$

    If you look at the computer generated image below your drawing, the angle $phi$ is equal to angle $theta$. Which means that $Deltasin(theta) = h cos(theta)$. Now if you let $Deltatheta$ approach 0, $Deltatheta$ approaches $h$. So when you divide through, you get:
    $$Deltasin(theta)/Deltatheta = cos(theta)$$
    Hope this helps!






    share|cite|improve this answer











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      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes








      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      11













      $begingroup$

      The inaccuracy is of lower order than the main quantities of interest, and becomes fully accurate in the limit. The key to this question is understanding precisely what the limit means, and for this I direct you towards the rigorous meaning of a limit. Note that an initial course in calculus will include many such "hand-wavy" arguments that seem to be slightly inaccurate, and it is typically in a later course (often called "analysis" or "real analysis") following calculus where this rigorous definition is presented and results in calculus are put on a more solid footing.



      For a more concrete instance of this, consider an expression like $x+x^2$ in the limit as $x$ tends to $0$. Now of course, $x+x^2$ does not equal $x$, but now if you imagine substituting a super tiny value for $x$, you will see that $x$ becomes a great approximation for $x(1+x)=x+x^2$. Note that this is stronger than saying that $x$ and $x+x^2$ have the same limit as $x$ goes to $0$, since $x^2$ also has this property - yet $x^2$ is a terrible approximation for $x+x^2$ in the limit when $x$ goes to $0$, since $x^2$ is much, much, much smaller than $x$. (I know this example is somewhat contrived, but it actually includes the main ideas in a particularly simple setting.)






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$










      • 1




        $begingroup$
        I want to point out, that "real analysis" does not mean that it is somewhat better than a regular "analysis" class. It just refers to the real numbers, not complex ones.
        $endgroup$
        – infinitezero
        Aug 12 at 13:52















      11













      $begingroup$

      The inaccuracy is of lower order than the main quantities of interest, and becomes fully accurate in the limit. The key to this question is understanding precisely what the limit means, and for this I direct you towards the rigorous meaning of a limit. Note that an initial course in calculus will include many such "hand-wavy" arguments that seem to be slightly inaccurate, and it is typically in a later course (often called "analysis" or "real analysis") following calculus where this rigorous definition is presented and results in calculus are put on a more solid footing.



      For a more concrete instance of this, consider an expression like $x+x^2$ in the limit as $x$ tends to $0$. Now of course, $x+x^2$ does not equal $x$, but now if you imagine substituting a super tiny value for $x$, you will see that $x$ becomes a great approximation for $x(1+x)=x+x^2$. Note that this is stronger than saying that $x$ and $x+x^2$ have the same limit as $x$ goes to $0$, since $x^2$ also has this property - yet $x^2$ is a terrible approximation for $x+x^2$ in the limit when $x$ goes to $0$, since $x^2$ is much, much, much smaller than $x$. (I know this example is somewhat contrived, but it actually includes the main ideas in a particularly simple setting.)






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$










      • 1




        $begingroup$
        I want to point out, that "real analysis" does not mean that it is somewhat better than a regular "analysis" class. It just refers to the real numbers, not complex ones.
        $endgroup$
        – infinitezero
        Aug 12 at 13:52













      11














      11










      11







      $begingroup$

      The inaccuracy is of lower order than the main quantities of interest, and becomes fully accurate in the limit. The key to this question is understanding precisely what the limit means, and for this I direct you towards the rigorous meaning of a limit. Note that an initial course in calculus will include many such "hand-wavy" arguments that seem to be slightly inaccurate, and it is typically in a later course (often called "analysis" or "real analysis") following calculus where this rigorous definition is presented and results in calculus are put on a more solid footing.



      For a more concrete instance of this, consider an expression like $x+x^2$ in the limit as $x$ tends to $0$. Now of course, $x+x^2$ does not equal $x$, but now if you imagine substituting a super tiny value for $x$, you will see that $x$ becomes a great approximation for $x(1+x)=x+x^2$. Note that this is stronger than saying that $x$ and $x+x^2$ have the same limit as $x$ goes to $0$, since $x^2$ also has this property - yet $x^2$ is a terrible approximation for $x+x^2$ in the limit when $x$ goes to $0$, since $x^2$ is much, much, much smaller than $x$. (I know this example is somewhat contrived, but it actually includes the main ideas in a particularly simple setting.)






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



      The inaccuracy is of lower order than the main quantities of interest, and becomes fully accurate in the limit. The key to this question is understanding precisely what the limit means, and for this I direct you towards the rigorous meaning of a limit. Note that an initial course in calculus will include many such "hand-wavy" arguments that seem to be slightly inaccurate, and it is typically in a later course (often called "analysis" or "real analysis") following calculus where this rigorous definition is presented and results in calculus are put on a more solid footing.



      For a more concrete instance of this, consider an expression like $x+x^2$ in the limit as $x$ tends to $0$. Now of course, $x+x^2$ does not equal $x$, but now if you imagine substituting a super tiny value for $x$, you will see that $x$ becomes a great approximation for $x(1+x)=x+x^2$. Note that this is stronger than saying that $x$ and $x+x^2$ have the same limit as $x$ goes to $0$, since $x^2$ also has this property - yet $x^2$ is a terrible approximation for $x+x^2$ in the limit when $x$ goes to $0$, since $x^2$ is much, much, much smaller than $x$. (I know this example is somewhat contrived, but it actually includes the main ideas in a particularly simple setting.)







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Aug 11 at 21:55

























      answered Aug 11 at 21:48









      pre-kidneypre-kidney

      18k21 silver badges57 bronze badges




      18k21 silver badges57 bronze badges










      • 1




        $begingroup$
        I want to point out, that "real analysis" does not mean that it is somewhat better than a regular "analysis" class. It just refers to the real numbers, not complex ones.
        $endgroup$
        – infinitezero
        Aug 12 at 13:52












      • 1




        $begingroup$
        I want to point out, that "real analysis" does not mean that it is somewhat better than a regular "analysis" class. It just refers to the real numbers, not complex ones.
        $endgroup$
        – infinitezero
        Aug 12 at 13:52







      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      I want to point out, that "real analysis" does not mean that it is somewhat better than a regular "analysis" class. It just refers to the real numbers, not complex ones.
      $endgroup$
      – infinitezero
      Aug 12 at 13:52




      $begingroup$
      I want to point out, that "real analysis" does not mean that it is somewhat better than a regular "analysis" class. It just refers to the real numbers, not complex ones.
      $endgroup$
      – infinitezero
      Aug 12 at 13:52













      5













      $begingroup$

      Proving a calculus theorem using pictures is not a very good idea.



      While you may get a vague outline from the graphs, you also get confused when concepts like limits are involved.



      If you study the definition of limits and read the proof of this theorem based on the exact definition, you will get a clear understanding as to why derivative of $sin x$ is $cos x$ and why the picture does not do a good job.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$














      • $begingroup$
        I disagree. I think pictures are a good place to begin understanding calculus and limits, as long as it's clear that they are just pictures and can be replaced by more formal arguments in later study.
        $endgroup$
        – Ethan Bolker
        Aug 12 at 14:52






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        I agree that graphs and pictures are useful tools if they come with the actual proof. You have seen pictures explaining the product rule or integration by parts or Young's theorem. The student's question is what happens to the little corner piece ? The picture gives them the impression that something is not quite accurate.
        $endgroup$
        – Mohammad Riazi-Kermani
        Aug 12 at 14:59















      5













      $begingroup$

      Proving a calculus theorem using pictures is not a very good idea.



      While you may get a vague outline from the graphs, you also get confused when concepts like limits are involved.



      If you study the definition of limits and read the proof of this theorem based on the exact definition, you will get a clear understanding as to why derivative of $sin x$ is $cos x$ and why the picture does not do a good job.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$














      • $begingroup$
        I disagree. I think pictures are a good place to begin understanding calculus and limits, as long as it's clear that they are just pictures and can be replaced by more formal arguments in later study.
        $endgroup$
        – Ethan Bolker
        Aug 12 at 14:52






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        I agree that graphs and pictures are useful tools if they come with the actual proof. You have seen pictures explaining the product rule or integration by parts or Young's theorem. The student's question is what happens to the little corner piece ? The picture gives them the impression that something is not quite accurate.
        $endgroup$
        – Mohammad Riazi-Kermani
        Aug 12 at 14:59













      5














      5










      5







      $begingroup$

      Proving a calculus theorem using pictures is not a very good idea.



      While you may get a vague outline from the graphs, you also get confused when concepts like limits are involved.



      If you study the definition of limits and read the proof of this theorem based on the exact definition, you will get a clear understanding as to why derivative of $sin x$ is $cos x$ and why the picture does not do a good job.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$



      Proving a calculus theorem using pictures is not a very good idea.



      While you may get a vague outline from the graphs, you also get confused when concepts like limits are involved.



      If you study the definition of limits and read the proof of this theorem based on the exact definition, you will get a clear understanding as to why derivative of $sin x$ is $cos x$ and why the picture does not do a good job.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Aug 11 at 22:04









      Mohammad Riazi-KermaniMohammad Riazi-Kermani

      52.3k4 gold badges27 silver badges72 bronze badges




      52.3k4 gold badges27 silver badges72 bronze badges














      • $begingroup$
        I disagree. I think pictures are a good place to begin understanding calculus and limits, as long as it's clear that they are just pictures and can be replaced by more formal arguments in later study.
        $endgroup$
        – Ethan Bolker
        Aug 12 at 14:52






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        I agree that graphs and pictures are useful tools if they come with the actual proof. You have seen pictures explaining the product rule or integration by parts or Young's theorem. The student's question is what happens to the little corner piece ? The picture gives them the impression that something is not quite accurate.
        $endgroup$
        – Mohammad Riazi-Kermani
        Aug 12 at 14:59
















      • $begingroup$
        I disagree. I think pictures are a good place to begin understanding calculus and limits, as long as it's clear that they are just pictures and can be replaced by more formal arguments in later study.
        $endgroup$
        – Ethan Bolker
        Aug 12 at 14:52






      • 1




        $begingroup$
        I agree that graphs and pictures are useful tools if they come with the actual proof. You have seen pictures explaining the product rule or integration by parts or Young's theorem. The student's question is what happens to the little corner piece ? The picture gives them the impression that something is not quite accurate.
        $endgroup$
        – Mohammad Riazi-Kermani
        Aug 12 at 14:59















      $begingroup$
      I disagree. I think pictures are a good place to begin understanding calculus and limits, as long as it's clear that they are just pictures and can be replaced by more formal arguments in later study.
      $endgroup$
      – Ethan Bolker
      Aug 12 at 14:52




      $begingroup$
      I disagree. I think pictures are a good place to begin understanding calculus and limits, as long as it's clear that they are just pictures and can be replaced by more formal arguments in later study.
      $endgroup$
      – Ethan Bolker
      Aug 12 at 14:52




      1




      1




      $begingroup$
      I agree that graphs and pictures are useful tools if they come with the actual proof. You have seen pictures explaining the product rule or integration by parts or Young's theorem. The student's question is what happens to the little corner piece ? The picture gives them the impression that something is not quite accurate.
      $endgroup$
      – Mohammad Riazi-Kermani
      Aug 12 at 14:59




      $begingroup$
      I agree that graphs and pictures are useful tools if they come with the actual proof. You have seen pictures explaining the product rule or integration by parts or Young's theorem. The student's question is what happens to the little corner piece ? The picture gives them the impression that something is not quite accurate.
      $endgroup$
      – Mohammad Riazi-Kermani
      Aug 12 at 14:59











      1













      $begingroup$

      Here's another way to picture the derivative of sine. This argument is for sine specifically, and doesn't appeal to more general machinery such as limits or even the definition of the derivative.



      Imagine the $(x, y)$ plane $mathbbR^2$. Next imagine the unit circle. This is the set of points with distance $1$ from the origin.



      The unit circle is defined below and named $U$ .



      $$ U stackrelmathrmdef= left (x, y) ; $$



      This notation is called set-builder notation if you haven't seen it before.



      Imagine starting at the point $(0, 1)$, which is due east if the top of the graph is north, and travelling counter-clockwise around the circle at a constant velocity.



      The circumference of the unit circle is $2pi$, so let's normalize our speed so it takes exactly $2pi$ seconds to travel around the circle once.



      Our position at any given point in time is given by $s(t)$ ...



      $$ s(t) stackrelmathrmdef= (cos(t), sin(t)) $$



      $t$ is the amount of time in seconds that we have been travelling around the circle. It is also the angle, in radians, between our current position, $(0, 0)$ (the origin), and $(0, 1)$ (our starting point).



      Our velocity is always perpendicular to our position if we're tracing out a circle as opposed to some other spiral-like shape. This gives us two options for what the formula for our velocity $v$ could be, let's call them $v_1$ and $v_2$ .



      Note that a slope $m'$ is perpendicular to $m$ if and only if $m' = -frac1m$ . There are other possibilities for the velocity formula such as $v_3(t) = (-sin(t)cos(t),,, 1) $, but all those other possibilities do not satisfy $mathrmlength(v_3(t)) = 1$ .



      Here are the candidates.



      $$ v_1(t) stackrelmathrmdef= (-sin(t), cos(t)) $$



      $$ v_2(t) stackrelmathrmdef= (sin(t), -cos(t)) $$



      $v_2$ is ruled out because it gives us a velocity of $(0, -1)$ at $t=0$, which means we are travelling clockwise around the circle instead of travelling counterclockwise. So:



      $$ fracmathrmds(t)mathrmdt = v(t) = (-sin(t), cos(t)) $$



      So, if we look at our $y$ coordinate alone, we get $sin(t)$ ... our velocity at any given point time in the $y$ direction is $cos(t)$ as desired.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



















        1













        $begingroup$

        Here's another way to picture the derivative of sine. This argument is for sine specifically, and doesn't appeal to more general machinery such as limits or even the definition of the derivative.



        Imagine the $(x, y)$ plane $mathbbR^2$. Next imagine the unit circle. This is the set of points with distance $1$ from the origin.



        The unit circle is defined below and named $U$ .



        $$ U stackrelmathrmdef= left (x, y) ; $$



        This notation is called set-builder notation if you haven't seen it before.



        Imagine starting at the point $(0, 1)$, which is due east if the top of the graph is north, and travelling counter-clockwise around the circle at a constant velocity.



        The circumference of the unit circle is $2pi$, so let's normalize our speed so it takes exactly $2pi$ seconds to travel around the circle once.



        Our position at any given point in time is given by $s(t)$ ...



        $$ s(t) stackrelmathrmdef= (cos(t), sin(t)) $$



        $t$ is the amount of time in seconds that we have been travelling around the circle. It is also the angle, in radians, between our current position, $(0, 0)$ (the origin), and $(0, 1)$ (our starting point).



        Our velocity is always perpendicular to our position if we're tracing out a circle as opposed to some other spiral-like shape. This gives us two options for what the formula for our velocity $v$ could be, let's call them $v_1$ and $v_2$ .



        Note that a slope $m'$ is perpendicular to $m$ if and only if $m' = -frac1m$ . There are other possibilities for the velocity formula such as $v_3(t) = (-sin(t)cos(t),,, 1) $, but all those other possibilities do not satisfy $mathrmlength(v_3(t)) = 1$ .



        Here are the candidates.



        $$ v_1(t) stackrelmathrmdef= (-sin(t), cos(t)) $$



        $$ v_2(t) stackrelmathrmdef= (sin(t), -cos(t)) $$



        $v_2$ is ruled out because it gives us a velocity of $(0, -1)$ at $t=0$, which means we are travelling clockwise around the circle instead of travelling counterclockwise. So:



        $$ fracmathrmds(t)mathrmdt = v(t) = (-sin(t), cos(t)) $$



        So, if we look at our $y$ coordinate alone, we get $sin(t)$ ... our velocity at any given point time in the $y$ direction is $cos(t)$ as desired.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$

















          1














          1










          1







          $begingroup$

          Here's another way to picture the derivative of sine. This argument is for sine specifically, and doesn't appeal to more general machinery such as limits or even the definition of the derivative.



          Imagine the $(x, y)$ plane $mathbbR^2$. Next imagine the unit circle. This is the set of points with distance $1$ from the origin.



          The unit circle is defined below and named $U$ .



          $$ U stackrelmathrmdef= left (x, y) ; $$



          This notation is called set-builder notation if you haven't seen it before.



          Imagine starting at the point $(0, 1)$, which is due east if the top of the graph is north, and travelling counter-clockwise around the circle at a constant velocity.



          The circumference of the unit circle is $2pi$, so let's normalize our speed so it takes exactly $2pi$ seconds to travel around the circle once.



          Our position at any given point in time is given by $s(t)$ ...



          $$ s(t) stackrelmathrmdef= (cos(t), sin(t)) $$



          $t$ is the amount of time in seconds that we have been travelling around the circle. It is also the angle, in radians, between our current position, $(0, 0)$ (the origin), and $(0, 1)$ (our starting point).



          Our velocity is always perpendicular to our position if we're tracing out a circle as opposed to some other spiral-like shape. This gives us two options for what the formula for our velocity $v$ could be, let's call them $v_1$ and $v_2$ .



          Note that a slope $m'$ is perpendicular to $m$ if and only if $m' = -frac1m$ . There are other possibilities for the velocity formula such as $v_3(t) = (-sin(t)cos(t),,, 1) $, but all those other possibilities do not satisfy $mathrmlength(v_3(t)) = 1$ .



          Here are the candidates.



          $$ v_1(t) stackrelmathrmdef= (-sin(t), cos(t)) $$



          $$ v_2(t) stackrelmathrmdef= (sin(t), -cos(t)) $$



          $v_2$ is ruled out because it gives us a velocity of $(0, -1)$ at $t=0$, which means we are travelling clockwise around the circle instead of travelling counterclockwise. So:



          $$ fracmathrmds(t)mathrmdt = v(t) = (-sin(t), cos(t)) $$



          So, if we look at our $y$ coordinate alone, we get $sin(t)$ ... our velocity at any given point time in the $y$ direction is $cos(t)$ as desired.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Here's another way to picture the derivative of sine. This argument is for sine specifically, and doesn't appeal to more general machinery such as limits or even the definition of the derivative.



          Imagine the $(x, y)$ plane $mathbbR^2$. Next imagine the unit circle. This is the set of points with distance $1$ from the origin.



          The unit circle is defined below and named $U$ .



          $$ U stackrelmathrmdef= left (x, y) ; $$



          This notation is called set-builder notation if you haven't seen it before.



          Imagine starting at the point $(0, 1)$, which is due east if the top of the graph is north, and travelling counter-clockwise around the circle at a constant velocity.



          The circumference of the unit circle is $2pi$, so let's normalize our speed so it takes exactly $2pi$ seconds to travel around the circle once.



          Our position at any given point in time is given by $s(t)$ ...



          $$ s(t) stackrelmathrmdef= (cos(t), sin(t)) $$



          $t$ is the amount of time in seconds that we have been travelling around the circle. It is also the angle, in radians, between our current position, $(0, 0)$ (the origin), and $(0, 1)$ (our starting point).



          Our velocity is always perpendicular to our position if we're tracing out a circle as opposed to some other spiral-like shape. This gives us two options for what the formula for our velocity $v$ could be, let's call them $v_1$ and $v_2$ .



          Note that a slope $m'$ is perpendicular to $m$ if and only if $m' = -frac1m$ . There are other possibilities for the velocity formula such as $v_3(t) = (-sin(t)cos(t),,, 1) $, but all those other possibilities do not satisfy $mathrmlength(v_3(t)) = 1$ .



          Here are the candidates.



          $$ v_1(t) stackrelmathrmdef= (-sin(t), cos(t)) $$



          $$ v_2(t) stackrelmathrmdef= (sin(t), -cos(t)) $$



          $v_2$ is ruled out because it gives us a velocity of $(0, -1)$ at $t=0$, which means we are travelling clockwise around the circle instead of travelling counterclockwise. So:



          $$ fracmathrmds(t)mathrmdt = v(t) = (-sin(t), cos(t)) $$



          So, if we look at our $y$ coordinate alone, we get $sin(t)$ ... our velocity at any given point time in the $y$ direction is $cos(t)$ as desired.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 12 at 14:36


























          community wiki





          3 revs
          Gregory Nisbet

























              -1













              $begingroup$

              If you look at the computer generated image below your drawing, the angle $phi$ is equal to angle $theta$. Which means that $Deltasin(theta) = h cos(theta)$. Now if you let $Deltatheta$ approach 0, $Deltatheta$ approaches $h$. So when you divide through, you get:
              $$Deltasin(theta)/Deltatheta = cos(theta)$$
              Hope this helps!






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$



















                -1













                $begingroup$

                If you look at the computer generated image below your drawing, the angle $phi$ is equal to angle $theta$. Which means that $Deltasin(theta) = h cos(theta)$. Now if you let $Deltatheta$ approach 0, $Deltatheta$ approaches $h$. So when you divide through, you get:
                $$Deltasin(theta)/Deltatheta = cos(theta)$$
                Hope this helps!






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$

















                  -1














                  -1










                  -1







                  $begingroup$

                  If you look at the computer generated image below your drawing, the angle $phi$ is equal to angle $theta$. Which means that $Deltasin(theta) = h cos(theta)$. Now if you let $Deltatheta$ approach 0, $Deltatheta$ approaches $h$. So when you divide through, you get:
                  $$Deltasin(theta)/Deltatheta = cos(theta)$$
                  Hope this helps!






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  If you look at the computer generated image below your drawing, the angle $phi$ is equal to angle $theta$. Which means that $Deltasin(theta) = h cos(theta)$. Now if you let $Deltatheta$ approach 0, $Deltatheta$ approaches $h$. So when you divide through, you get:
                  $$Deltasin(theta)/Deltatheta = cos(theta)$$
                  Hope this helps!







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Aug 12 at 17:09









                  vonbrand

                  20.9k6 gold badges32 silver badges60 bronze badges




                  20.9k6 gold badges32 silver badges60 bronze badges










                  answered Aug 12 at 16:53









                  Jake CJake C

                  1




                  1






























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