Existence of a pointwise convergent subsequenceWhen does pointwise convergence imply uniform convergence?Are Arzelà–Ascoli theorems results of similar theorems on normed spaces, metric spaces or other spaces?Does Arzelà-Ascoli theorem hold for pointwise convergence?Subsequence Convergencelooking for proof that this uniformly bounded sequence of functions has no pointwise convergent subsequenceHow to show a set is compact in a function space?Having trouble showing existence of pointwise convergent subsequence of a sequence of real-valued pointwise bounded functions on a countable set.Arzela-Ascoli Theorem: Is only pointwise boundedness required?Pointwise a.e. convergence vs. Pointwise convergenceExistence of pointwise convergent subsequence of increasing functions

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Existence of a pointwise convergent subsequence


When does pointwise convergence imply uniform convergence?Are Arzelà–Ascoli theorems results of similar theorems on normed spaces, metric spaces or other spaces?Does Arzelà-Ascoli theorem hold for pointwise convergence?Subsequence Convergencelooking for proof that this uniformly bounded sequence of functions has no pointwise convergent subsequenceHow to show a set is compact in a function space?Having trouble showing existence of pointwise convergent subsequence of a sequence of real-valued pointwise bounded functions on a countable set.Arzela-Ascoli Theorem: Is only pointwise boundedness required?Pointwise a.e. convergence vs. Pointwise convergenceExistence of pointwise convergent subsequence of increasing functions













10












$begingroup$


Let $X$ be a compact metric space and $f_m:Xto[0,1]$ a continuous function for each $minmathbb N$.




Does there necessarily exist a $f:Xto[0,1]$ (not necessarily continuous) and a subsequence $(f_m_k)$ such that $f_m_k(x)to f(x)$ for each $xin X$ pointwise?




Note that the equicontinuity of $(f_m)_minmathbb N$ is not assumed, so that the Arzelà–Ascoli theorem is of no use here. However, the desired conclusion is also weaker: the supposed limit function $f$ need not be continuous and only pointwise convergence is required.



Any suggestion would be appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $X$ has a countable dense subset. Perhaps you could define $f$ there first?
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Jun 4 at 21:26










  • $begingroup$
    @copper.hat Yes, that’s a good idea for a first step. If $x^1,x^2,ldots$ is dense, then, by Cantor’s diagonal method, there is a subsequence such that $f_m_k(x^j)$ converges as $ktoinfty$ for every $jinmathbb N$. Using this result, the next step would be showing that $f_m_k(x)$ is Cauchy in $[0,1]$ for each $xin X$, but it seems tricky, as convergence at the $x^j$s need not be uniform.
    $endgroup$
    – triple_sec
    Jun 4 at 21:28











  • $begingroup$
    Robert has a nice counterexample below.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Jun 4 at 21:32










  • $begingroup$
    If functions $f_n:mathbbRrightarrow [0,1]$ are nondecreasing in x for each n, then (regardless of continuity or behavior with n) your argument of showing convergence over a subsequence on a countable but dense subset can be used to prove convergence everywhere in $mathbbR$.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Jun 5 at 0:07











  • $begingroup$
    The same does not hold for functions $f_n:mathbbR^2rightarrow [0,1]$ that are entrywise nondecreasing as we can have discontinuity across a diagonal and then adapt one of the 1-d counterexamples given below on that diagonal.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Jun 5 at 0:29















10












$begingroup$


Let $X$ be a compact metric space and $f_m:Xto[0,1]$ a continuous function for each $minmathbb N$.




Does there necessarily exist a $f:Xto[0,1]$ (not necessarily continuous) and a subsequence $(f_m_k)$ such that $f_m_k(x)to f(x)$ for each $xin X$ pointwise?




Note that the equicontinuity of $(f_m)_minmathbb N$ is not assumed, so that the Arzelà–Ascoli theorem is of no use here. However, the desired conclusion is also weaker: the supposed limit function $f$ need not be continuous and only pointwise convergence is required.



Any suggestion would be appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $X$ has a countable dense subset. Perhaps you could define $f$ there first?
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Jun 4 at 21:26










  • $begingroup$
    @copper.hat Yes, that’s a good idea for a first step. If $x^1,x^2,ldots$ is dense, then, by Cantor’s diagonal method, there is a subsequence such that $f_m_k(x^j)$ converges as $ktoinfty$ for every $jinmathbb N$. Using this result, the next step would be showing that $f_m_k(x)$ is Cauchy in $[0,1]$ for each $xin X$, but it seems tricky, as convergence at the $x^j$s need not be uniform.
    $endgroup$
    – triple_sec
    Jun 4 at 21:28











  • $begingroup$
    Robert has a nice counterexample below.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Jun 4 at 21:32










  • $begingroup$
    If functions $f_n:mathbbRrightarrow [0,1]$ are nondecreasing in x for each n, then (regardless of continuity or behavior with n) your argument of showing convergence over a subsequence on a countable but dense subset can be used to prove convergence everywhere in $mathbbR$.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Jun 5 at 0:07











  • $begingroup$
    The same does not hold for functions $f_n:mathbbR^2rightarrow [0,1]$ that are entrywise nondecreasing as we can have discontinuity across a diagonal and then adapt one of the 1-d counterexamples given below on that diagonal.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Jun 5 at 0:29













10












10








10


2



$begingroup$


Let $X$ be a compact metric space and $f_m:Xto[0,1]$ a continuous function for each $minmathbb N$.




Does there necessarily exist a $f:Xto[0,1]$ (not necessarily continuous) and a subsequence $(f_m_k)$ such that $f_m_k(x)to f(x)$ for each $xin X$ pointwise?




Note that the equicontinuity of $(f_m)_minmathbb N$ is not assumed, so that the Arzelà–Ascoli theorem is of no use here. However, the desired conclusion is also weaker: the supposed limit function $f$ need not be continuous and only pointwise convergence is required.



Any suggestion would be appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Let $X$ be a compact metric space and $f_m:Xto[0,1]$ a continuous function for each $minmathbb N$.




Does there necessarily exist a $f:Xto[0,1]$ (not necessarily continuous) and a subsequence $(f_m_k)$ such that $f_m_k(x)to f(x)$ for each $xin X$ pointwise?




Note that the equicontinuity of $(f_m)_minmathbb N$ is not assumed, so that the Arzelà–Ascoli theorem is of no use here. However, the desired conclusion is also weaker: the supposed limit function $f$ need not be continuous and only pointwise convergence is required.



Any suggestion would be appreciated.







real-analysis general-topology






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Jun 4 at 20:59









triple_sectriple_sec

16.2k21954




16.2k21954







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $X$ has a countable dense subset. Perhaps you could define $f$ there first?
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Jun 4 at 21:26










  • $begingroup$
    @copper.hat Yes, that’s a good idea for a first step. If $x^1,x^2,ldots$ is dense, then, by Cantor’s diagonal method, there is a subsequence such that $f_m_k(x^j)$ converges as $ktoinfty$ for every $jinmathbb N$. Using this result, the next step would be showing that $f_m_k(x)$ is Cauchy in $[0,1]$ for each $xin X$, but it seems tricky, as convergence at the $x^j$s need not be uniform.
    $endgroup$
    – triple_sec
    Jun 4 at 21:28











  • $begingroup$
    Robert has a nice counterexample below.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Jun 4 at 21:32










  • $begingroup$
    If functions $f_n:mathbbRrightarrow [0,1]$ are nondecreasing in x for each n, then (regardless of continuity or behavior with n) your argument of showing convergence over a subsequence on a countable but dense subset can be used to prove convergence everywhere in $mathbbR$.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Jun 5 at 0:07











  • $begingroup$
    The same does not hold for functions $f_n:mathbbR^2rightarrow [0,1]$ that are entrywise nondecreasing as we can have discontinuity across a diagonal and then adapt one of the 1-d counterexamples given below on that diagonal.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Jun 5 at 0:29












  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $X$ has a countable dense subset. Perhaps you could define $f$ there first?
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Jun 4 at 21:26










  • $begingroup$
    @copper.hat Yes, that’s a good idea for a first step. If $x^1,x^2,ldots$ is dense, then, by Cantor’s diagonal method, there is a subsequence such that $f_m_k(x^j)$ converges as $ktoinfty$ for every $jinmathbb N$. Using this result, the next step would be showing that $f_m_k(x)$ is Cauchy in $[0,1]$ for each $xin X$, but it seems tricky, as convergence at the $x^j$s need not be uniform.
    $endgroup$
    – triple_sec
    Jun 4 at 21:28











  • $begingroup$
    Robert has a nice counterexample below.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Jun 4 at 21:32










  • $begingroup$
    If functions $f_n:mathbbRrightarrow [0,1]$ are nondecreasing in x for each n, then (regardless of continuity or behavior with n) your argument of showing convergence over a subsequence on a countable but dense subset can be used to prove convergence everywhere in $mathbbR$.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Jun 5 at 0:07











  • $begingroup$
    The same does not hold for functions $f_n:mathbbR^2rightarrow [0,1]$ that are entrywise nondecreasing as we can have discontinuity across a diagonal and then adapt one of the 1-d counterexamples given below on that diagonal.
    $endgroup$
    – Michael
    Jun 5 at 0:29







1




1




$begingroup$
$X$ has a countable dense subset. Perhaps you could define $f$ there first?
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Jun 4 at 21:26




$begingroup$
$X$ has a countable dense subset. Perhaps you could define $f$ there first?
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Jun 4 at 21:26












$begingroup$
@copper.hat Yes, that’s a good idea for a first step. If $x^1,x^2,ldots$ is dense, then, by Cantor’s diagonal method, there is a subsequence such that $f_m_k(x^j)$ converges as $ktoinfty$ for every $jinmathbb N$. Using this result, the next step would be showing that $f_m_k(x)$ is Cauchy in $[0,1]$ for each $xin X$, but it seems tricky, as convergence at the $x^j$s need not be uniform.
$endgroup$
– triple_sec
Jun 4 at 21:28





$begingroup$
@copper.hat Yes, that’s a good idea for a first step. If $x^1,x^2,ldots$ is dense, then, by Cantor’s diagonal method, there is a subsequence such that $f_m_k(x^j)$ converges as $ktoinfty$ for every $jinmathbb N$. Using this result, the next step would be showing that $f_m_k(x)$ is Cauchy in $[0,1]$ for each $xin X$, but it seems tricky, as convergence at the $x^j$s need not be uniform.
$endgroup$
– triple_sec
Jun 4 at 21:28













$begingroup$
Robert has a nice counterexample below.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Jun 4 at 21:32




$begingroup$
Robert has a nice counterexample below.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
Jun 4 at 21:32












$begingroup$
If functions $f_n:mathbbRrightarrow [0,1]$ are nondecreasing in x for each n, then (regardless of continuity or behavior with n) your argument of showing convergence over a subsequence on a countable but dense subset can be used to prove convergence everywhere in $mathbbR$.
$endgroup$
– Michael
Jun 5 at 0:07





$begingroup$
If functions $f_n:mathbbRrightarrow [0,1]$ are nondecreasing in x for each n, then (regardless of continuity or behavior with n) your argument of showing convergence over a subsequence on a countable but dense subset can be used to prove convergence everywhere in $mathbbR$.
$endgroup$
– Michael
Jun 5 at 0:07













$begingroup$
The same does not hold for functions $f_n:mathbbR^2rightarrow [0,1]$ that are entrywise nondecreasing as we can have discontinuity across a diagonal and then adapt one of the 1-d counterexamples given below on that diagonal.
$endgroup$
– Michael
Jun 5 at 0:29




$begingroup$
The same does not hold for functions $f_n:mathbbR^2rightarrow [0,1]$ that are entrywise nondecreasing as we can have discontinuity across a diagonal and then adapt one of the 1-d counterexamples given below on that diagonal.
$endgroup$
– Michael
Jun 5 at 0:29










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















8












$begingroup$

No, there does not. Consider $f_n(x) = cos(4^n pi x)$ on $[0,1]$ (with range in $[-1,1]$ not $[0,1]$, but you can transform it). Then for any subsequence $f_n_k$, there is
some $x in [0,1]$ such that $f_n_k(x) ge cos(pi/4)$ if $k$ is odd and $le -cos(pi/4)$ if $k$ is even. All you need to do is choose the base-$4$ digits of $x$ correctly.



EDIT: Any choice of the first $n$ digits after the "decimal" point leaves $x$ in an interval of length $4^-n$ on which $f_n$ goes either from $1$ to $-1$ or $-1$ to $1$. Choose the $n+1$'th digit to be $0$ or $3$ to make $f_n(x) ge cos(pi/4)$ or $le -cos(pi/4)$ (which is which depends on the previous choices of digits). For example, if you choose the first $3$ digits to be $0,3,0$, that says $x$ is between $0 times 4^-1 + 3 times 4^-2 + 0 times 4^-3 = 3/16$ and $0 times 4^-1 + 3 times 4^-2 + 1 times 4^-3 = 13/64$,
say $x = 3/16 + 4^-3 t$, $0 le t le 1$. On this interval, $f_3(x) = cos(4^3 pi x) = cos(pi t)$ goes from $1$ at $t=0$ to $-1$ at $t=1$. If you want $f_3(x) ge cos(pi/4)$, choose the $4$'th digit to be $0$, if you want $f_3(x) le - cos(pi/4)$ choose the $4$'th digit to be $1$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What do mean by "choose the base-$4$ digits of $x$ correctly"? Could you illustrate it with an example please? For instance the case where $n_k=k$. How do you construct $x$? Thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – Dog_69
    Jun 4 at 22:45


















6












$begingroup$

A similar example using more machinery hence perhaps less tricky in the details: Let $X=[0,2pi]$, $f_n(t)=cos(nt)$. If $f_n_k(x)to f(x)$ for (almost) every $x$ then Dominated Convergence shows that $||f_n_k-f||_2to0$; this is impossible by orthogonality (for example, $||f_n-f_m||_2^2=2pi$.)






share|cite|improve this answer









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    2 Answers
    2






    active

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    8












    $begingroup$

    No, there does not. Consider $f_n(x) = cos(4^n pi x)$ on $[0,1]$ (with range in $[-1,1]$ not $[0,1]$, but you can transform it). Then for any subsequence $f_n_k$, there is
    some $x in [0,1]$ such that $f_n_k(x) ge cos(pi/4)$ if $k$ is odd and $le -cos(pi/4)$ if $k$ is even. All you need to do is choose the base-$4$ digits of $x$ correctly.



    EDIT: Any choice of the first $n$ digits after the "decimal" point leaves $x$ in an interval of length $4^-n$ on which $f_n$ goes either from $1$ to $-1$ or $-1$ to $1$. Choose the $n+1$'th digit to be $0$ or $3$ to make $f_n(x) ge cos(pi/4)$ or $le -cos(pi/4)$ (which is which depends on the previous choices of digits). For example, if you choose the first $3$ digits to be $0,3,0$, that says $x$ is between $0 times 4^-1 + 3 times 4^-2 + 0 times 4^-3 = 3/16$ and $0 times 4^-1 + 3 times 4^-2 + 1 times 4^-3 = 13/64$,
    say $x = 3/16 + 4^-3 t$, $0 le t le 1$. On this interval, $f_3(x) = cos(4^3 pi x) = cos(pi t)$ goes from $1$ at $t=0$ to $-1$ at $t=1$. If you want $f_3(x) ge cos(pi/4)$, choose the $4$'th digit to be $0$, if you want $f_3(x) le - cos(pi/4)$ choose the $4$'th digit to be $1$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      What do mean by "choose the base-$4$ digits of $x$ correctly"? Could you illustrate it with an example please? For instance the case where $n_k=k$. How do you construct $x$? Thanks.
      $endgroup$
      – Dog_69
      Jun 4 at 22:45















    8












    $begingroup$

    No, there does not. Consider $f_n(x) = cos(4^n pi x)$ on $[0,1]$ (with range in $[-1,1]$ not $[0,1]$, but you can transform it). Then for any subsequence $f_n_k$, there is
    some $x in [0,1]$ such that $f_n_k(x) ge cos(pi/4)$ if $k$ is odd and $le -cos(pi/4)$ if $k$ is even. All you need to do is choose the base-$4$ digits of $x$ correctly.



    EDIT: Any choice of the first $n$ digits after the "decimal" point leaves $x$ in an interval of length $4^-n$ on which $f_n$ goes either from $1$ to $-1$ or $-1$ to $1$. Choose the $n+1$'th digit to be $0$ or $3$ to make $f_n(x) ge cos(pi/4)$ or $le -cos(pi/4)$ (which is which depends on the previous choices of digits). For example, if you choose the first $3$ digits to be $0,3,0$, that says $x$ is between $0 times 4^-1 + 3 times 4^-2 + 0 times 4^-3 = 3/16$ and $0 times 4^-1 + 3 times 4^-2 + 1 times 4^-3 = 13/64$,
    say $x = 3/16 + 4^-3 t$, $0 le t le 1$. On this interval, $f_3(x) = cos(4^3 pi x) = cos(pi t)$ goes from $1$ at $t=0$ to $-1$ at $t=1$. If you want $f_3(x) ge cos(pi/4)$, choose the $4$'th digit to be $0$, if you want $f_3(x) le - cos(pi/4)$ choose the $4$'th digit to be $1$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$












    • $begingroup$
      What do mean by "choose the base-$4$ digits of $x$ correctly"? Could you illustrate it with an example please? For instance the case where $n_k=k$. How do you construct $x$? Thanks.
      $endgroup$
      – Dog_69
      Jun 4 at 22:45













    8












    8








    8





    $begingroup$

    No, there does not. Consider $f_n(x) = cos(4^n pi x)$ on $[0,1]$ (with range in $[-1,1]$ not $[0,1]$, but you can transform it). Then for any subsequence $f_n_k$, there is
    some $x in [0,1]$ such that $f_n_k(x) ge cos(pi/4)$ if $k$ is odd and $le -cos(pi/4)$ if $k$ is even. All you need to do is choose the base-$4$ digits of $x$ correctly.



    EDIT: Any choice of the first $n$ digits after the "decimal" point leaves $x$ in an interval of length $4^-n$ on which $f_n$ goes either from $1$ to $-1$ or $-1$ to $1$. Choose the $n+1$'th digit to be $0$ or $3$ to make $f_n(x) ge cos(pi/4)$ or $le -cos(pi/4)$ (which is which depends on the previous choices of digits). For example, if you choose the first $3$ digits to be $0,3,0$, that says $x$ is between $0 times 4^-1 + 3 times 4^-2 + 0 times 4^-3 = 3/16$ and $0 times 4^-1 + 3 times 4^-2 + 1 times 4^-3 = 13/64$,
    say $x = 3/16 + 4^-3 t$, $0 le t le 1$. On this interval, $f_3(x) = cos(4^3 pi x) = cos(pi t)$ goes from $1$ at $t=0$ to $-1$ at $t=1$. If you want $f_3(x) ge cos(pi/4)$, choose the $4$'th digit to be $0$, if you want $f_3(x) le - cos(pi/4)$ choose the $4$'th digit to be $1$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    No, there does not. Consider $f_n(x) = cos(4^n pi x)$ on $[0,1]$ (with range in $[-1,1]$ not $[0,1]$, but you can transform it). Then for any subsequence $f_n_k$, there is
    some $x in [0,1]$ such that $f_n_k(x) ge cos(pi/4)$ if $k$ is odd and $le -cos(pi/4)$ if $k$ is even. All you need to do is choose the base-$4$ digits of $x$ correctly.



    EDIT: Any choice of the first $n$ digits after the "decimal" point leaves $x$ in an interval of length $4^-n$ on which $f_n$ goes either from $1$ to $-1$ or $-1$ to $1$. Choose the $n+1$'th digit to be $0$ or $3$ to make $f_n(x) ge cos(pi/4)$ or $le -cos(pi/4)$ (which is which depends on the previous choices of digits). For example, if you choose the first $3$ digits to be $0,3,0$, that says $x$ is between $0 times 4^-1 + 3 times 4^-2 + 0 times 4^-3 = 3/16$ and $0 times 4^-1 + 3 times 4^-2 + 1 times 4^-3 = 13/64$,
    say $x = 3/16 + 4^-3 t$, $0 le t le 1$. On this interval, $f_3(x) = cos(4^3 pi x) = cos(pi t)$ goes from $1$ at $t=0$ to $-1$ at $t=1$. If you want $f_3(x) ge cos(pi/4)$, choose the $4$'th digit to be $0$, if you want $f_3(x) le - cos(pi/4)$ choose the $4$'th digit to be $1$.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Jun 4 at 23:41

























    answered Jun 4 at 21:31









    Robert IsraelRobert Israel

    338k23232490




    338k23232490











    • $begingroup$
      What do mean by "choose the base-$4$ digits of $x$ correctly"? Could you illustrate it with an example please? For instance the case where $n_k=k$. How do you construct $x$? Thanks.
      $endgroup$
      – Dog_69
      Jun 4 at 22:45
















    • $begingroup$
      What do mean by "choose the base-$4$ digits of $x$ correctly"? Could you illustrate it with an example please? For instance the case where $n_k=k$. How do you construct $x$? Thanks.
      $endgroup$
      – Dog_69
      Jun 4 at 22:45















    $begingroup$
    What do mean by "choose the base-$4$ digits of $x$ correctly"? Could you illustrate it with an example please? For instance the case where $n_k=k$. How do you construct $x$? Thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – Dog_69
    Jun 4 at 22:45




    $begingroup$
    What do mean by "choose the base-$4$ digits of $x$ correctly"? Could you illustrate it with an example please? For instance the case where $n_k=k$. How do you construct $x$? Thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – Dog_69
    Jun 4 at 22:45











    6












    $begingroup$

    A similar example using more machinery hence perhaps less tricky in the details: Let $X=[0,2pi]$, $f_n(t)=cos(nt)$. If $f_n_k(x)to f(x)$ for (almost) every $x$ then Dominated Convergence shows that $||f_n_k-f||_2to0$; this is impossible by orthogonality (for example, $||f_n-f_m||_2^2=2pi$.)






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      6












      $begingroup$

      A similar example using more machinery hence perhaps less tricky in the details: Let $X=[0,2pi]$, $f_n(t)=cos(nt)$. If $f_n_k(x)to f(x)$ for (almost) every $x$ then Dominated Convergence shows that $||f_n_k-f||_2to0$; this is impossible by orthogonality (for example, $||f_n-f_m||_2^2=2pi$.)






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        6












        6








        6





        $begingroup$

        A similar example using more machinery hence perhaps less tricky in the details: Let $X=[0,2pi]$, $f_n(t)=cos(nt)$. If $f_n_k(x)to f(x)$ for (almost) every $x$ then Dominated Convergence shows that $||f_n_k-f||_2to0$; this is impossible by orthogonality (for example, $||f_n-f_m||_2^2=2pi$.)






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        A similar example using more machinery hence perhaps less tricky in the details: Let $X=[0,2pi]$, $f_n(t)=cos(nt)$. If $f_n_k(x)to f(x)$ for (almost) every $x$ then Dominated Convergence shows that $||f_n_k-f||_2to0$; this is impossible by orthogonality (for example, $||f_n-f_m||_2^2=2pi$.)







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jun 4 at 23:35









        David C. UllrichDavid C. Ullrich

        63.1k44298




        63.1k44298



























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