A curious prime counting approximation or just data overfitting?Is Li(x) the best possible approximation to the prime-counting function?Estimate on the prime-counting function $psi(x)$.Asymptotic bounds on $pi^-1(x)$ (inverse prime counting function)Prime-Counting Functiona question for the prime counting functionThe shortest interval for which the prime number theorem holdsParity of the Prime Counting Functionprime counting function pi boundsnth prime better approximationPrime counting. Meissel, Lehmer: is there a general formula?

A curious prime counting approximation or just data overfitting?


Is Li(x) the best possible approximation to the prime-counting function?Estimate on the prime-counting function $psi(x)$.Asymptotic bounds on $pi^-1(x)$ (inverse prime counting function)Prime-Counting Functiona question for the prime counting functionThe shortest interval for which the prime number theorem holdsParity of the Prime Counting Functionprime counting function pi boundsnth prime better approximationPrime counting. Meissel, Lehmer: is there a general formula?













7












$begingroup$


I am not sure, if this is a research problem. If not I will move this question to ME:
Let $Omega(n) = sum_p v_p(n)$, which we might view as a random variable.
Let $E_n = frac1n sum_k=1^nOmega(k)$ be the expected value and $V_n=frac1n sum_k=1^n(E_n-Omega(k))^2$ be the variance.
Then
$$pi(n) approx fracngamma(fracV_nE_n,1.4854177cdot fracV_nE_n^2)Gamma(fracV_nE_n)$$
where $Gamma=$ Gamma function, $gamma=$ lower incomplete gamma function.



Background:
I was trying to fit the gamma distribution to the random variable $Omega(k)$ ,$1 le k le n$. The value $1.4854177$ is fitted to some data.
My question is, if there is any heuristic why this approximation should be good, if at all, or if this is just an overfitting problem?



Below you can find some sage code which implements this:



def Omega(n):
return sum([valuation(n,p) for p in prime_divisors(n)])

means = []
variances = []
xxs = []
omegas = [Omega(k) for k in range(1,10^4)]
for nn in range(10^4,10^4+3*10^3+1):
n = nn
omegas.append(Omega(n))
print "---"
m = mean(omegas[1:-1])
v = variance(omegas[1:-1])
shape,scale = m^2/v,v/m
xx = find_root(lambda xx : n*(lower_gamma(shape,xx*1/scale)/gamma(shape) ).N()-prime_pi(n),1,2)
xx = 1.4854177706344873
approxPrimePi2 = n*(lower_gamma(shape,xx*1/scale)/gamma(shape) ).N()
primepi = prime_pi(n)
print primepi, approxPrimePi2,shape.N(),scale.N(),xx
print "---"
print "err2 = %s" % (abs(primepi-approxPrimePi2)/primepi)
xxs.append(xx)
means.append(m.N())
variances.append(v.N())









share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Does $1.485...$ correspond to some known constant?
    $endgroup$
    – Sylvain JULIEN
    Jun 4 at 19:19











  • $begingroup$
    I am not sure. Maybe.
    $endgroup$
    – orgesleka
    Jun 4 at 19:20















7












$begingroup$


I am not sure, if this is a research problem. If not I will move this question to ME:
Let $Omega(n) = sum_p v_p(n)$, which we might view as a random variable.
Let $E_n = frac1n sum_k=1^nOmega(k)$ be the expected value and $V_n=frac1n sum_k=1^n(E_n-Omega(k))^2$ be the variance.
Then
$$pi(n) approx fracngamma(fracV_nE_n,1.4854177cdot fracV_nE_n^2)Gamma(fracV_nE_n)$$
where $Gamma=$ Gamma function, $gamma=$ lower incomplete gamma function.



Background:
I was trying to fit the gamma distribution to the random variable $Omega(k)$ ,$1 le k le n$. The value $1.4854177$ is fitted to some data.
My question is, if there is any heuristic why this approximation should be good, if at all, or if this is just an overfitting problem?



Below you can find some sage code which implements this:



def Omega(n):
return sum([valuation(n,p) for p in prime_divisors(n)])

means = []
variances = []
xxs = []
omegas = [Omega(k) for k in range(1,10^4)]
for nn in range(10^4,10^4+3*10^3+1):
n = nn
omegas.append(Omega(n))
print "---"
m = mean(omegas[1:-1])
v = variance(omegas[1:-1])
shape,scale = m^2/v,v/m
xx = find_root(lambda xx : n*(lower_gamma(shape,xx*1/scale)/gamma(shape) ).N()-prime_pi(n),1,2)
xx = 1.4854177706344873
approxPrimePi2 = n*(lower_gamma(shape,xx*1/scale)/gamma(shape) ).N()
primepi = prime_pi(n)
print primepi, approxPrimePi2,shape.N(),scale.N(),xx
print "---"
print "err2 = %s" % (abs(primepi-approxPrimePi2)/primepi)
xxs.append(xx)
means.append(m.N())
variances.append(v.N())









share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    Does $1.485...$ correspond to some known constant?
    $endgroup$
    – Sylvain JULIEN
    Jun 4 at 19:19











  • $begingroup$
    I am not sure. Maybe.
    $endgroup$
    – orgesleka
    Jun 4 at 19:20













7












7








7





$begingroup$


I am not sure, if this is a research problem. If not I will move this question to ME:
Let $Omega(n) = sum_p v_p(n)$, which we might view as a random variable.
Let $E_n = frac1n sum_k=1^nOmega(k)$ be the expected value and $V_n=frac1n sum_k=1^n(E_n-Omega(k))^2$ be the variance.
Then
$$pi(n) approx fracngamma(fracV_nE_n,1.4854177cdot fracV_nE_n^2)Gamma(fracV_nE_n)$$
where $Gamma=$ Gamma function, $gamma=$ lower incomplete gamma function.



Background:
I was trying to fit the gamma distribution to the random variable $Omega(k)$ ,$1 le k le n$. The value $1.4854177$ is fitted to some data.
My question is, if there is any heuristic why this approximation should be good, if at all, or if this is just an overfitting problem?



Below you can find some sage code which implements this:



def Omega(n):
return sum([valuation(n,p) for p in prime_divisors(n)])

means = []
variances = []
xxs = []
omegas = [Omega(k) for k in range(1,10^4)]
for nn in range(10^4,10^4+3*10^3+1):
n = nn
omegas.append(Omega(n))
print "---"
m = mean(omegas[1:-1])
v = variance(omegas[1:-1])
shape,scale = m^2/v,v/m
xx = find_root(lambda xx : n*(lower_gamma(shape,xx*1/scale)/gamma(shape) ).N()-prime_pi(n),1,2)
xx = 1.4854177706344873
approxPrimePi2 = n*(lower_gamma(shape,xx*1/scale)/gamma(shape) ).N()
primepi = prime_pi(n)
print primepi, approxPrimePi2,shape.N(),scale.N(),xx
print "---"
print "err2 = %s" % (abs(primepi-approxPrimePi2)/primepi)
xxs.append(xx)
means.append(m.N())
variances.append(v.N())









share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I am not sure, if this is a research problem. If not I will move this question to ME:
Let $Omega(n) = sum_p v_p(n)$, which we might view as a random variable.
Let $E_n = frac1n sum_k=1^nOmega(k)$ be the expected value and $V_n=frac1n sum_k=1^n(E_n-Omega(k))^2$ be the variance.
Then
$$pi(n) approx fracngamma(fracV_nE_n,1.4854177cdot fracV_nE_n^2)Gamma(fracV_nE_n)$$
where $Gamma=$ Gamma function, $gamma=$ lower incomplete gamma function.



Background:
I was trying to fit the gamma distribution to the random variable $Omega(k)$ ,$1 le k le n$. The value $1.4854177$ is fitted to some data.
My question is, if there is any heuristic why this approximation should be good, if at all, or if this is just an overfitting problem?



Below you can find some sage code which implements this:



def Omega(n):
return sum([valuation(n,p) for p in prime_divisors(n)])

means = []
variances = []
xxs = []
omegas = [Omega(k) for k in range(1,10^4)]
for nn in range(10^4,10^4+3*10^3+1):
n = nn
omegas.append(Omega(n))
print "---"
m = mean(omegas[1:-1])
v = variance(omegas[1:-1])
shape,scale = m^2/v,v/m
xx = find_root(lambda xx : n*(lower_gamma(shape,xx*1/scale)/gamma(shape) ).N()-prime_pi(n),1,2)
xx = 1.4854177706344873
approxPrimePi2 = n*(lower_gamma(shape,xx*1/scale)/gamma(shape) ).N()
primepi = prime_pi(n)
print primepi, approxPrimePi2,shape.N(),scale.N(),xx
print "---"
print "err2 = %s" % (abs(primepi-approxPrimePi2)/primepi)
xxs.append(xx)
means.append(m.N())
variances.append(v.N())






nt.number-theory analytic-number-theory prime-numbers prime-number-theorem






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jun 4 at 19:33









GH from MO

61.2k5154234




61.2k5154234










asked Jun 4 at 18:05









orgeslekaorgesleka

747418




747418











  • $begingroup$
    Does $1.485...$ correspond to some known constant?
    $endgroup$
    – Sylvain JULIEN
    Jun 4 at 19:19











  • $begingroup$
    I am not sure. Maybe.
    $endgroup$
    – orgesleka
    Jun 4 at 19:20
















  • $begingroup$
    Does $1.485...$ correspond to some known constant?
    $endgroup$
    – Sylvain JULIEN
    Jun 4 at 19:19











  • $begingroup$
    I am not sure. Maybe.
    $endgroup$
    – orgesleka
    Jun 4 at 19:20















$begingroup$
Does $1.485...$ correspond to some known constant?
$endgroup$
– Sylvain JULIEN
Jun 4 at 19:19





$begingroup$
Does $1.485...$ correspond to some known constant?
$endgroup$
– Sylvain JULIEN
Jun 4 at 19:19













$begingroup$
I am not sure. Maybe.
$endgroup$
– orgesleka
Jun 4 at 19:20




$begingroup$
I am not sure. Maybe.
$endgroup$
– orgesleka
Jun 4 at 19:20










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















22












$begingroup$

Your heuristic approximation is not correct. It was proved by Turán (1934) that
$E_n$ and $V_n$ are both asymptotically $loglog n$. As a result, the RHS of your display is
$$nfracgammaleft(1+o(1),frac1.4854177+o(1)loglog nright)Gammabigl(1+o(1)bigr)=nfrac1.4854177+o(1)loglog n.$$
On the other hand, $pi(n)$ is asymptotically $n/log n$ by the prime number theorem.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    thanks. i thought that there must be some mistake
    $endgroup$
    – orgesleka
    Jun 4 at 19:34











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1 Answer
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active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes









22












$begingroup$

Your heuristic approximation is not correct. It was proved by Turán (1934) that
$E_n$ and $V_n$ are both asymptotically $loglog n$. As a result, the RHS of your display is
$$nfracgammaleft(1+o(1),frac1.4854177+o(1)loglog nright)Gammabigl(1+o(1)bigr)=nfrac1.4854177+o(1)loglog n.$$
On the other hand, $pi(n)$ is asymptotically $n/log n$ by the prime number theorem.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    thanks. i thought that there must be some mistake
    $endgroup$
    – orgesleka
    Jun 4 at 19:34















22












$begingroup$

Your heuristic approximation is not correct. It was proved by Turán (1934) that
$E_n$ and $V_n$ are both asymptotically $loglog n$. As a result, the RHS of your display is
$$nfracgammaleft(1+o(1),frac1.4854177+o(1)loglog nright)Gammabigl(1+o(1)bigr)=nfrac1.4854177+o(1)loglog n.$$
On the other hand, $pi(n)$ is asymptotically $n/log n$ by the prime number theorem.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    thanks. i thought that there must be some mistake
    $endgroup$
    – orgesleka
    Jun 4 at 19:34













22












22








22





$begingroup$

Your heuristic approximation is not correct. It was proved by Turán (1934) that
$E_n$ and $V_n$ are both asymptotically $loglog n$. As a result, the RHS of your display is
$$nfracgammaleft(1+o(1),frac1.4854177+o(1)loglog nright)Gammabigl(1+o(1)bigr)=nfrac1.4854177+o(1)loglog n.$$
On the other hand, $pi(n)$ is asymptotically $n/log n$ by the prime number theorem.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Your heuristic approximation is not correct. It was proved by Turán (1934) that
$E_n$ and $V_n$ are both asymptotically $loglog n$. As a result, the RHS of your display is
$$nfracgammaleft(1+o(1),frac1.4854177+o(1)loglog nright)Gammabigl(1+o(1)bigr)=nfrac1.4854177+o(1)loglog n.$$
On the other hand, $pi(n)$ is asymptotically $n/log n$ by the prime number theorem.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jun 4 at 19:34

























answered Jun 4 at 19:33









GH from MOGH from MO

61.2k5154234




61.2k5154234







  • 2




    $begingroup$
    thanks. i thought that there must be some mistake
    $endgroup$
    – orgesleka
    Jun 4 at 19:34












  • 2




    $begingroup$
    thanks. i thought that there must be some mistake
    $endgroup$
    – orgesleka
    Jun 4 at 19:34







2




2




$begingroup$
thanks. i thought that there must be some mistake
$endgroup$
– orgesleka
Jun 4 at 19:34




$begingroup$
thanks. i thought that there must be some mistake
$endgroup$
– orgesleka
Jun 4 at 19:34

















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