How different will that be between the R-squared of linear regression y~x and square of cor(x,y)How to estimate a multiple regression function that has interactions between the independent variables and is potentially non-linear?Correlation between a linear and a log seriesWhat is the qualitative difference between a Michaelis-Menten model and a log-linear model?Relation between linear regression prediction accuracy and correlationsuitable non-linear equation to capture a 'J-shaped' relationship between x and yWhat's the similarity and the difference between time series regression and “regular” linear regression?Is there a relationship between R squared and linear regression coefficients variances?How to simulate the outcome in a simple linear regression given X and R-squared?What is difference between correlation and simple linear regression (binary dependent variable and continuous independent variable)?Is a linear correlation between logs useful for making predictions with a regression model?
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How different will that be between the R-squared of linear regression y~x and square of cor(x,y)
How to estimate a multiple regression function that has interactions between the independent variables and is potentially non-linear?Correlation between a linear and a log seriesWhat is the qualitative difference between a Michaelis-Menten model and a log-linear model?Relation between linear regression prediction accuracy and correlationsuitable non-linear equation to capture a 'J-shaped' relationship between x and yWhat's the similarity and the difference between time series regression and “regular” linear regression?Is there a relationship between R squared and linear regression coefficients variances?How to simulate the outcome in a simple linear regression given X and R-squared?What is difference between correlation and simple linear regression (binary dependent variable and continuous independent variable)?Is a linear correlation between logs useful for making predictions with a regression model?
.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;
$begingroup$
Generally, both of them can represent the linear relationship between x and y scale to [0,1].
Are they 99% very similar?
regression correlation generalized-linear-model similarities univariate
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Generally, both of them can represent the linear relationship between x and y scale to [0,1].
Are they 99% very similar?
regression correlation generalized-linear-model similarities univariate
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Not the same thing. See answers.
$endgroup$
– BruceET
Jun 19 at 5:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Generally, both of them can represent the linear relationship between x and y scale to [0,1].
Are they 99% very similar?
regression correlation generalized-linear-model similarities univariate
$endgroup$
Generally, both of them can represent the linear relationship between x and y scale to [0,1].
Are they 99% very similar?
regression correlation generalized-linear-model similarities univariate
regression correlation generalized-linear-model similarities univariate
edited Jun 20 at 3:22
Tommy Yu
asked Jun 19 at 3:27
Tommy YuTommy Yu
184 bronze badges
184 bronze badges
$begingroup$
Not the same thing. See answers.
$endgroup$
– BruceET
Jun 19 at 5:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Not the same thing. See answers.
$endgroup$
– BruceET
Jun 19 at 5:41
$begingroup$
Not the same thing. See answers.
$endgroup$
– BruceET
Jun 19 at 5:41
$begingroup$
Not the same thing. See answers.
$endgroup$
– BruceET
Jun 19 at 5:41
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Computationally, R-sq
in computer printouts is the square $r^2$of the (Pearson) correlation $r.$ Sometimes $r^2$ is called the 'coefficient of determination'. Because $-1 le r le 1$ we have $0 le r^2 le 1.$
Suppose we have the simple linear regression model
$$Y_i = beta_0 + beta_1 x_i + e_i,$$
for $i = 1,2, dots,n$ where $e_i stackreliidsimmathsfNorm(0, sigma_e).$
In regression $r^2$ is sometimes referred to (intuitively) as the proportion of the variability in $Y$ that is explained by regression on $x.$ This interpretation roughly matches the equation
$$S_x^2 = fracn-1n-2S_Y^2(1 - r^2),$$
where $S_Y^2$ is the sample variance of the $Y_i$ and $S_x^2$ is the sum of squared residuals divided by $n-2,$ sometimes referred to as the variance about the regression line.
Thus if $r = pm 1$ so that $r^2 = 1,$ then $S_x^2 = 0$ and all of the $(x_i,Y_i)$-points lie
precisely on the regression line. Also, if $r approx 0,$ then $S_x^2 approx S_Y^2$ and the $x_i$ have no
role to play in 'explaining' the $Y_i.$
Sometimes, the Pearson 'correlation coefficient' $r$ is said to express the 'linear component' of the association of $X_i$ and $Y_i.$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
@mkt. Thanks for fixing typo.
$endgroup$
– BruceET
Jun 19 at 5:59
add a comment |
$begingroup$
R-squared or coefficient of determination generally has the value between 0 and 1. However cor(x,y) is between -1 and 1.
Definition of R-squared for a multiple linear regression is the square of correlation between output (y) and predicted values(f). For the case of simple linear regression with an intercept and one explanatory variable it happens R-squared is as same as square of cor(x,y).
I hope this helps you.
New contributor
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Definitely they are not same, but for simple linear regression : Y=ax+b (x is a single variable and not a vector), value of coefficient of determination is equal to square of correlation between x and y.
$endgroup$
– Masoud Norouzi Darabad
Jun 19 at 5:19
add a comment |
Your Answer
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Computationally, R-sq
in computer printouts is the square $r^2$of the (Pearson) correlation $r.$ Sometimes $r^2$ is called the 'coefficient of determination'. Because $-1 le r le 1$ we have $0 le r^2 le 1.$
Suppose we have the simple linear regression model
$$Y_i = beta_0 + beta_1 x_i + e_i,$$
for $i = 1,2, dots,n$ where $e_i stackreliidsimmathsfNorm(0, sigma_e).$
In regression $r^2$ is sometimes referred to (intuitively) as the proportion of the variability in $Y$ that is explained by regression on $x.$ This interpretation roughly matches the equation
$$S_x^2 = fracn-1n-2S_Y^2(1 - r^2),$$
where $S_Y^2$ is the sample variance of the $Y_i$ and $S_x^2$ is the sum of squared residuals divided by $n-2,$ sometimes referred to as the variance about the regression line.
Thus if $r = pm 1$ so that $r^2 = 1,$ then $S_x^2 = 0$ and all of the $(x_i,Y_i)$-points lie
precisely on the regression line. Also, if $r approx 0,$ then $S_x^2 approx S_Y^2$ and the $x_i$ have no
role to play in 'explaining' the $Y_i.$
Sometimes, the Pearson 'correlation coefficient' $r$ is said to express the 'linear component' of the association of $X_i$ and $Y_i.$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
@mkt. Thanks for fixing typo.
$endgroup$
– BruceET
Jun 19 at 5:59
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Computationally, R-sq
in computer printouts is the square $r^2$of the (Pearson) correlation $r.$ Sometimes $r^2$ is called the 'coefficient of determination'. Because $-1 le r le 1$ we have $0 le r^2 le 1.$
Suppose we have the simple linear regression model
$$Y_i = beta_0 + beta_1 x_i + e_i,$$
for $i = 1,2, dots,n$ where $e_i stackreliidsimmathsfNorm(0, sigma_e).$
In regression $r^2$ is sometimes referred to (intuitively) as the proportion of the variability in $Y$ that is explained by regression on $x.$ This interpretation roughly matches the equation
$$S_x^2 = fracn-1n-2S_Y^2(1 - r^2),$$
where $S_Y^2$ is the sample variance of the $Y_i$ and $S_x^2$ is the sum of squared residuals divided by $n-2,$ sometimes referred to as the variance about the regression line.
Thus if $r = pm 1$ so that $r^2 = 1,$ then $S_x^2 = 0$ and all of the $(x_i,Y_i)$-points lie
precisely on the regression line. Also, if $r approx 0,$ then $S_x^2 approx S_Y^2$ and the $x_i$ have no
role to play in 'explaining' the $Y_i.$
Sometimes, the Pearson 'correlation coefficient' $r$ is said to express the 'linear component' of the association of $X_i$ and $Y_i.$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
@mkt. Thanks for fixing typo.
$endgroup$
– BruceET
Jun 19 at 5:59
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Computationally, R-sq
in computer printouts is the square $r^2$of the (Pearson) correlation $r.$ Sometimes $r^2$ is called the 'coefficient of determination'. Because $-1 le r le 1$ we have $0 le r^2 le 1.$
Suppose we have the simple linear regression model
$$Y_i = beta_0 + beta_1 x_i + e_i,$$
for $i = 1,2, dots,n$ where $e_i stackreliidsimmathsfNorm(0, sigma_e).$
In regression $r^2$ is sometimes referred to (intuitively) as the proportion of the variability in $Y$ that is explained by regression on $x.$ This interpretation roughly matches the equation
$$S_x^2 = fracn-1n-2S_Y^2(1 - r^2),$$
where $S_Y^2$ is the sample variance of the $Y_i$ and $S_x^2$ is the sum of squared residuals divided by $n-2,$ sometimes referred to as the variance about the regression line.
Thus if $r = pm 1$ so that $r^2 = 1,$ then $S_x^2 = 0$ and all of the $(x_i,Y_i)$-points lie
precisely on the regression line. Also, if $r approx 0,$ then $S_x^2 approx S_Y^2$ and the $x_i$ have no
role to play in 'explaining' the $Y_i.$
Sometimes, the Pearson 'correlation coefficient' $r$ is said to express the 'linear component' of the association of $X_i$ and $Y_i.$
$endgroup$
Computationally, R-sq
in computer printouts is the square $r^2$of the (Pearson) correlation $r.$ Sometimes $r^2$ is called the 'coefficient of determination'. Because $-1 le r le 1$ we have $0 le r^2 le 1.$
Suppose we have the simple linear regression model
$$Y_i = beta_0 + beta_1 x_i + e_i,$$
for $i = 1,2, dots,n$ where $e_i stackreliidsimmathsfNorm(0, sigma_e).$
In regression $r^2$ is sometimes referred to (intuitively) as the proportion of the variability in $Y$ that is explained by regression on $x.$ This interpretation roughly matches the equation
$$S_x^2 = fracn-1n-2S_Y^2(1 - r^2),$$
where $S_Y^2$ is the sample variance of the $Y_i$ and $S_x^2$ is the sum of squared residuals divided by $n-2,$ sometimes referred to as the variance about the regression line.
Thus if $r = pm 1$ so that $r^2 = 1,$ then $S_x^2 = 0$ and all of the $(x_i,Y_i)$-points lie
precisely on the regression line. Also, if $r approx 0,$ then $S_x^2 approx S_Y^2$ and the $x_i$ have no
role to play in 'explaining' the $Y_i.$
Sometimes, the Pearson 'correlation coefficient' $r$ is said to express the 'linear component' of the association of $X_i$ and $Y_i.$
edited Jun 19 at 5:50
answered Jun 19 at 5:11
BruceETBruceET
9,7481 gold badge8 silver badges24 bronze badges
9,7481 gold badge8 silver badges24 bronze badges
1
$begingroup$
@mkt. Thanks for fixing typo.
$endgroup$
– BruceET
Jun 19 at 5:59
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
@mkt. Thanks for fixing typo.
$endgroup$
– BruceET
Jun 19 at 5:59
1
1
$begingroup$
@mkt. Thanks for fixing typo.
$endgroup$
– BruceET
Jun 19 at 5:59
$begingroup$
@mkt. Thanks for fixing typo.
$endgroup$
– BruceET
Jun 19 at 5:59
add a comment |
$begingroup$
R-squared or coefficient of determination generally has the value between 0 and 1. However cor(x,y) is between -1 and 1.
Definition of R-squared for a multiple linear regression is the square of correlation between output (y) and predicted values(f). For the case of simple linear regression with an intercept and one explanatory variable it happens R-squared is as same as square of cor(x,y).
I hope this helps you.
New contributor
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Definitely they are not same, but for simple linear regression : Y=ax+b (x is a single variable and not a vector), value of coefficient of determination is equal to square of correlation between x and y.
$endgroup$
– Masoud Norouzi Darabad
Jun 19 at 5:19
add a comment |
$begingroup$
R-squared or coefficient of determination generally has the value between 0 and 1. However cor(x,y) is between -1 and 1.
Definition of R-squared for a multiple linear regression is the square of correlation between output (y) and predicted values(f). For the case of simple linear regression with an intercept and one explanatory variable it happens R-squared is as same as square of cor(x,y).
I hope this helps you.
New contributor
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Definitely they are not same, but for simple linear regression : Y=ax+b (x is a single variable and not a vector), value of coefficient of determination is equal to square of correlation between x and y.
$endgroup$
– Masoud Norouzi Darabad
Jun 19 at 5:19
add a comment |
$begingroup$
R-squared or coefficient of determination generally has the value between 0 and 1. However cor(x,y) is between -1 and 1.
Definition of R-squared for a multiple linear regression is the square of correlation between output (y) and predicted values(f). For the case of simple linear regression with an intercept and one explanatory variable it happens R-squared is as same as square of cor(x,y).
I hope this helps you.
New contributor
$endgroup$
R-squared or coefficient of determination generally has the value between 0 and 1. However cor(x,y) is between -1 and 1.
Definition of R-squared for a multiple linear regression is the square of correlation between output (y) and predicted values(f). For the case of simple linear regression with an intercept and one explanatory variable it happens R-squared is as same as square of cor(x,y).
I hope this helps you.
New contributor
edited Jun 19 at 5:15
New contributor
answered Jun 19 at 5:03
Masoud Norouzi DarabadMasoud Norouzi Darabad
112 bronze badges
112 bronze badges
New contributor
New contributor
$begingroup$
Definitely they are not same, but for simple linear regression : Y=ax+b (x is a single variable and not a vector), value of coefficient of determination is equal to square of correlation between x and y.
$endgroup$
– Masoud Norouzi Darabad
Jun 19 at 5:19
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Definitely they are not same, but for simple linear regression : Y=ax+b (x is a single variable and not a vector), value of coefficient of determination is equal to square of correlation between x and y.
$endgroup$
– Masoud Norouzi Darabad
Jun 19 at 5:19
$begingroup$
Definitely they are not same, but for simple linear regression : Y=ax+b (x is a single variable and not a vector), value of coefficient of determination is equal to square of correlation between x and y.
$endgroup$
– Masoud Norouzi Darabad
Jun 19 at 5:19
$begingroup$
Definitely they are not same, but for simple linear regression : Y=ax+b (x is a single variable and not a vector), value of coefficient of determination is equal to square of correlation between x and y.
$endgroup$
– Masoud Norouzi Darabad
Jun 19 at 5:19
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Not the same thing. See answers.
$endgroup$
– BruceET
Jun 19 at 5:41