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Proof that the inverse image of a single element is a discrete space


Show that in a discrete metric space, every subset is both open and closed.When is a local homeomorphism a covering map?Showing the fibre over a point in a covering map is a discrete space.Local homeomorphism and inverse imageHow do I show that a topological space is discrete if all its subsets are closed?Why is the kernel of a covering group discrete?Why is the Long Line not a covering space for the CircleThe restriction of a covering map on the connected component of its definition domainFibers and they being discrete spaceLocal homeomorphisms which are not covering map?Alternative definition of covering spaces.A local homeomorphism between compact, connected, topological spacesProve that exist bijection between inverse image of covering spaceProof that a discrete space (with more than 1 element) is not connectedWhy does a Hausdorff but not countably compact space have an infinite closed discrete subset?













3












$begingroup$


Let $f: X rightarrow Y$ be a local homeomorphism. I want to prove that, for each $y in Y$, the fiber $f^-1(y)$ is a discrete set, or discrete space (Is there any difference between these two last terms?).

These are the posts I have read so far:



Local homeomorphism and inverse image



When is a local homeomorphism a covering map?



Showing the fibre over a point in a covering map is a discrete space.



How do I show that a topological space is discrete if all its subsets are closed?



Show that in a discrete metric space, every subset is both open and closed.



However, I have not been able to fully understand the proof. Some of the posts start the proof by mentioning that the fact that $f$ is a local homeomorphism implies that the fiber is finite; but I do not understand where does that come from, even after browsing MathSE and Wikipedia.

Other posts try instead to prove that the fiber is finite, and they do so by first stating that the fiber is a discrete space. All of this make it look like circular reasoning, which does not make sense to me.

If there is a concept I do not know, I am willing to visit places like Wikipedia or Subwiki.org ; however this time I have not been able to understand the proof even after reading many articles.



So, how can I prove this?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$
















    3












    $begingroup$


    Let $f: X rightarrow Y$ be a local homeomorphism. I want to prove that, for each $y in Y$, the fiber $f^-1(y)$ is a discrete set, or discrete space (Is there any difference between these two last terms?).

    These are the posts I have read so far:



    Local homeomorphism and inverse image



    When is a local homeomorphism a covering map?



    Showing the fibre over a point in a covering map is a discrete space.



    How do I show that a topological space is discrete if all its subsets are closed?



    Show that in a discrete metric space, every subset is both open and closed.



    However, I have not been able to fully understand the proof. Some of the posts start the proof by mentioning that the fact that $f$ is a local homeomorphism implies that the fiber is finite; but I do not understand where does that come from, even after browsing MathSE and Wikipedia.

    Other posts try instead to prove that the fiber is finite, and they do so by first stating that the fiber is a discrete space. All of this make it look like circular reasoning, which does not make sense to me.

    If there is a concept I do not know, I am willing to visit places like Wikipedia or Subwiki.org ; however this time I have not been able to understand the proof even after reading many articles.



    So, how can I prove this?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$


      Let $f: X rightarrow Y$ be a local homeomorphism. I want to prove that, for each $y in Y$, the fiber $f^-1(y)$ is a discrete set, or discrete space (Is there any difference between these two last terms?).

      These are the posts I have read so far:



      Local homeomorphism and inverse image



      When is a local homeomorphism a covering map?



      Showing the fibre over a point in a covering map is a discrete space.



      How do I show that a topological space is discrete if all its subsets are closed?



      Show that in a discrete metric space, every subset is both open and closed.



      However, I have not been able to fully understand the proof. Some of the posts start the proof by mentioning that the fact that $f$ is a local homeomorphism implies that the fiber is finite; but I do not understand where does that come from, even after browsing MathSE and Wikipedia.

      Other posts try instead to prove that the fiber is finite, and they do so by first stating that the fiber is a discrete space. All of this make it look like circular reasoning, which does not make sense to me.

      If there is a concept I do not know, I am willing to visit places like Wikipedia or Subwiki.org ; however this time I have not been able to understand the proof even after reading many articles.



      So, how can I prove this?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $f: X rightarrow Y$ be a local homeomorphism. I want to prove that, for each $y in Y$, the fiber $f^-1(y)$ is a discrete set, or discrete space (Is there any difference between these two last terms?).

      These are the posts I have read so far:



      Local homeomorphism and inverse image



      When is a local homeomorphism a covering map?



      Showing the fibre over a point in a covering map is a discrete space.



      How do I show that a topological space is discrete if all its subsets are closed?



      Show that in a discrete metric space, every subset is both open and closed.



      However, I have not been able to fully understand the proof. Some of the posts start the proof by mentioning that the fact that $f$ is a local homeomorphism implies that the fiber is finite; but I do not understand where does that come from, even after browsing MathSE and Wikipedia.

      Other posts try instead to prove that the fiber is finite, and they do so by first stating that the fiber is a discrete space. All of this make it look like circular reasoning, which does not make sense to me.

      If there is a concept I do not know, I am willing to visit places like Wikipedia or Subwiki.org ; however this time I have not been able to understand the proof even after reading many articles.



      So, how can I prove this?







      general-topology metric-spaces covering-spaces






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited May 12 at 6:14









      Henno Brandsma

      120k351130




      120k351130










      asked May 11 at 20:17









      evaristegdevaristegd

      16511




      16511




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          4












          $begingroup$

          Fix $yin Y$ and $xin f^-1(y)$. Since $f$ is a local homeomorphism, there is a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $f|U : Uto f(U)$ is a homeomorphism. If $zin Ucap f^-1(y)$, then $f(z) = y = f(x)$; since both $z, xin U$, injectivity of $f|U$ implies $z = x$. Therefore $Ucap f^-1(y) = x$. As $x$ was arbitrary, $f^-1(y)$ is discrete.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




















            4












            $begingroup$

            Let $f:X to Y$ be a local homeomorphism.



            Suppose $y in Y$ and let $x in F_y:=f^-1[y]$, the fibre of $y$.



            Then $x$ has an open neighbourhood $U_x$ such that $f|_U_x: U_x to f[U_x]$ is a homeomorphism (by the definition of being a local homeomorphism).



            In particular, $U_x cap F_y = x$ or else we have some $x' in U_x cap F_y$ which means $f(x')=f(x)=y$ while $x,x' in U_x$ contradicting the fact that $f|_U_x$ is injective (being a homeomorphism). So $U_x$ witnesses that $x$ is an isolated point of $F_y$, showing that $F_y$ is indeed discrete in the subspace topology.



            Note that local injectivity is all we need.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













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              2 Answers
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              active

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              active

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              4












              $begingroup$

              Fix $yin Y$ and $xin f^-1(y)$. Since $f$ is a local homeomorphism, there is a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $f|U : Uto f(U)$ is a homeomorphism. If $zin Ucap f^-1(y)$, then $f(z) = y = f(x)$; since both $z, xin U$, injectivity of $f|U$ implies $z = x$. Therefore $Ucap f^-1(y) = x$. As $x$ was arbitrary, $f^-1(y)$ is discrete.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                4












                $begingroup$

                Fix $yin Y$ and $xin f^-1(y)$. Since $f$ is a local homeomorphism, there is a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $f|U : Uto f(U)$ is a homeomorphism. If $zin Ucap f^-1(y)$, then $f(z) = y = f(x)$; since both $z, xin U$, injectivity of $f|U$ implies $z = x$. Therefore $Ucap f^-1(y) = x$. As $x$ was arbitrary, $f^-1(y)$ is discrete.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  4












                  4








                  4





                  $begingroup$

                  Fix $yin Y$ and $xin f^-1(y)$. Since $f$ is a local homeomorphism, there is a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $f|U : Uto f(U)$ is a homeomorphism. If $zin Ucap f^-1(y)$, then $f(z) = y = f(x)$; since both $z, xin U$, injectivity of $f|U$ implies $z = x$. Therefore $Ucap f^-1(y) = x$. As $x$ was arbitrary, $f^-1(y)$ is discrete.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Fix $yin Y$ and $xin f^-1(y)$. Since $f$ is a local homeomorphism, there is a neighborhood $U$ of $x$ such that $f|U : Uto f(U)$ is a homeomorphism. If $zin Ucap f^-1(y)$, then $f(z) = y = f(x)$; since both $z, xin U$, injectivity of $f|U$ implies $z = x$. Therefore $Ucap f^-1(y) = x$. As $x$ was arbitrary, $f^-1(y)$ is discrete.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered May 11 at 20:30









                  kobekobe

                  35.3k22248




                  35.3k22248





















                      4












                      $begingroup$

                      Let $f:X to Y$ be a local homeomorphism.



                      Suppose $y in Y$ and let $x in F_y:=f^-1[y]$, the fibre of $y$.



                      Then $x$ has an open neighbourhood $U_x$ such that $f|_U_x: U_x to f[U_x]$ is a homeomorphism (by the definition of being a local homeomorphism).



                      In particular, $U_x cap F_y = x$ or else we have some $x' in U_x cap F_y$ which means $f(x')=f(x)=y$ while $x,x' in U_x$ contradicting the fact that $f|_U_x$ is injective (being a homeomorphism). So $U_x$ witnesses that $x$ is an isolated point of $F_y$, showing that $F_y$ is indeed discrete in the subspace topology.



                      Note that local injectivity is all we need.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$

















                        4












                        $begingroup$

                        Let $f:X to Y$ be a local homeomorphism.



                        Suppose $y in Y$ and let $x in F_y:=f^-1[y]$, the fibre of $y$.



                        Then $x$ has an open neighbourhood $U_x$ such that $f|_U_x: U_x to f[U_x]$ is a homeomorphism (by the definition of being a local homeomorphism).



                        In particular, $U_x cap F_y = x$ or else we have some $x' in U_x cap F_y$ which means $f(x')=f(x)=y$ while $x,x' in U_x$ contradicting the fact that $f|_U_x$ is injective (being a homeomorphism). So $U_x$ witnesses that $x$ is an isolated point of $F_y$, showing that $F_y$ is indeed discrete in the subspace topology.



                        Note that local injectivity is all we need.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$















                          4












                          4








                          4





                          $begingroup$

                          Let $f:X to Y$ be a local homeomorphism.



                          Suppose $y in Y$ and let $x in F_y:=f^-1[y]$, the fibre of $y$.



                          Then $x$ has an open neighbourhood $U_x$ such that $f|_U_x: U_x to f[U_x]$ is a homeomorphism (by the definition of being a local homeomorphism).



                          In particular, $U_x cap F_y = x$ or else we have some $x' in U_x cap F_y$ which means $f(x')=f(x)=y$ while $x,x' in U_x$ contradicting the fact that $f|_U_x$ is injective (being a homeomorphism). So $U_x$ witnesses that $x$ is an isolated point of $F_y$, showing that $F_y$ is indeed discrete in the subspace topology.



                          Note that local injectivity is all we need.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          Let $f:X to Y$ be a local homeomorphism.



                          Suppose $y in Y$ and let $x in F_y:=f^-1[y]$, the fibre of $y$.



                          Then $x$ has an open neighbourhood $U_x$ such that $f|_U_x: U_x to f[U_x]$ is a homeomorphism (by the definition of being a local homeomorphism).



                          In particular, $U_x cap F_y = x$ or else we have some $x' in U_x cap F_y$ which means $f(x')=f(x)=y$ while $x,x' in U_x$ contradicting the fact that $f|_U_x$ is injective (being a homeomorphism). So $U_x$ witnesses that $x$ is an isolated point of $F_y$, showing that $F_y$ is indeed discrete in the subspace topology.



                          Note that local injectivity is all we need.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered May 11 at 20:30









                          Henno BrandsmaHenno Brandsma

                          120k351130




                          120k351130



























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