Was Jesus good at singing? [on hold]Catholic Communion under One KindGiven a Catholic understanding of Hell and individual judgment, do Catholics believe that all Protestants will go to Hell?What role does the New Covenant play in Reformed Theology?In the Lord's Prayer, to what does “daily bread” refer?Do the notes in the NABRE accurately reflect the Catholic Church's understanding of biblical inerrancy?What was the explicit purpose of Jesus' question to James and John?The order of Communion in Luke 22:17-20 versus Mark 14:22-25 and Matthew 26:26-29Will the faithful eat and drink after resurrection?Can the faithful receive Holy Communion on repenting after committing a grave sin?What did Jesus mean by “ many” beneficiaries of His ensuing blood-shed?

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Translating “About that...”



Was Jesus good at singing? [on hold]


Catholic Communion under One KindGiven a Catholic understanding of Hell and individual judgment, do Catholics believe that all Protestants will go to Hell?What role does the New Covenant play in Reformed Theology?In the Lord's Prayer, to what does “daily bread” refer?Do the notes in the NABRE accurately reflect the Catholic Church's understanding of biblical inerrancy?What was the explicit purpose of Jesus' question to James and John?The order of Communion in Luke 22:17-20 versus Mark 14:22-25 and Matthew 26:26-29Will the faithful eat and drink after resurrection?Can the faithful receive Holy Communion on repenting after committing a grave sin?What did Jesus mean by “ many” beneficiaries of His ensuing blood-shed?













7















At Matthew 26: 27-30 we see:




Then he took a cup, and after giving thanks he gave it to them, saying, “Drink from it, all of you; for this is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins. I tell you, I will never again drink of this fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s kingdom.” When they had sung the hymn, they went out to the Mount of Olives.




That is perhaps, the only narrative in the Gospels where we see Jesus singing. There is a school of thought which says that Jesus taught many things, including the Lord's Prayer, in verses. The Catholic Church is yet to come up with a confirmatory statement on the said prospects. Be that as it may, I am eager to know if Jesus was good at singing, just as his forefather David was. Does any apocryphal teaching endorsed by the Catholic Church say that Jesus was good at singing ?










share|improve this question















put on hold as primarily opinion-based by Kris, KorvinStarmast, Geremia, guest37, Nathaniel 2 days ago


Many good questions generate some degree of opinion based on expert experience, but answers to this question will tend to be almost entirely based on opinions, rather than facts, references, or specific expertise. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.













  • 7





    I dare say that what we consider "good singing" has changed quite a bit over the last 2000 years. What we do know, from a number of stories of Jesus preaching out of doors, is that he must have had excellent voice projection.

    – Michael Kay
    Jun 3 at 16:05











  • @MichaelKay Not everyone was able to hear Jesus speaking ;-)

    – Thunderforge
    Jun 4 at 18:50







  • 2





    Apocryphal writings are just that and as such are not endorsed by the Church.

    – Ken Graham
    Jun 5 at 11:20















7















At Matthew 26: 27-30 we see:




Then he took a cup, and after giving thanks he gave it to them, saying, “Drink from it, all of you; for this is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins. I tell you, I will never again drink of this fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s kingdom.” When they had sung the hymn, they went out to the Mount of Olives.




That is perhaps, the only narrative in the Gospels where we see Jesus singing. There is a school of thought which says that Jesus taught many things, including the Lord's Prayer, in verses. The Catholic Church is yet to come up with a confirmatory statement on the said prospects. Be that as it may, I am eager to know if Jesus was good at singing, just as his forefather David was. Does any apocryphal teaching endorsed by the Catholic Church say that Jesus was good at singing ?










share|improve this question















put on hold as primarily opinion-based by Kris, KorvinStarmast, Geremia, guest37, Nathaniel 2 days ago


Many good questions generate some degree of opinion based on expert experience, but answers to this question will tend to be almost entirely based on opinions, rather than facts, references, or specific expertise. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.













  • 7





    I dare say that what we consider "good singing" has changed quite a bit over the last 2000 years. What we do know, from a number of stories of Jesus preaching out of doors, is that he must have had excellent voice projection.

    – Michael Kay
    Jun 3 at 16:05











  • @MichaelKay Not everyone was able to hear Jesus speaking ;-)

    – Thunderforge
    Jun 4 at 18:50







  • 2





    Apocryphal writings are just that and as such are not endorsed by the Church.

    – Ken Graham
    Jun 5 at 11:20













7












7








7








At Matthew 26: 27-30 we see:




Then he took a cup, and after giving thanks he gave it to them, saying, “Drink from it, all of you; for this is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins. I tell you, I will never again drink of this fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s kingdom.” When they had sung the hymn, they went out to the Mount of Olives.




That is perhaps, the only narrative in the Gospels where we see Jesus singing. There is a school of thought which says that Jesus taught many things, including the Lord's Prayer, in verses. The Catholic Church is yet to come up with a confirmatory statement on the said prospects. Be that as it may, I am eager to know if Jesus was good at singing, just as his forefather David was. Does any apocryphal teaching endorsed by the Catholic Church say that Jesus was good at singing ?










share|improve this question
















At Matthew 26: 27-30 we see:




Then he took a cup, and after giving thanks he gave it to them, saying, “Drink from it, all of you; for this is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins. I tell you, I will never again drink of this fruit of the vine until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father’s kingdom.” When they had sung the hymn, they went out to the Mount of Olives.




That is perhaps, the only narrative in the Gospels where we see Jesus singing. There is a school of thought which says that Jesus taught many things, including the Lord's Prayer, in verses. The Catholic Church is yet to come up with a confirmatory statement on the said prospects. Be that as it may, I am eager to know if Jesus was good at singing, just as his forefather David was. Does any apocryphal teaching endorsed by the Catholic Church say that Jesus was good at singing ?







catholicism life-of-jesus gospel-of-matthew tradition singing






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited Jun 5 at 11:23









Ken Graham

17.7k32265




17.7k32265










asked Jun 3 at 4:26









Kadalikatt Joseph SibichanKadalikatt Joseph Sibichan

2,3842826




2,3842826




put on hold as primarily opinion-based by Kris, KorvinStarmast, Geremia, guest37, Nathaniel 2 days ago


Many good questions generate some degree of opinion based on expert experience, but answers to this question will tend to be almost entirely based on opinions, rather than facts, references, or specific expertise. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.









put on hold as primarily opinion-based by Kris, KorvinStarmast, Geremia, guest37, Nathaniel 2 days ago


Many good questions generate some degree of opinion based on expert experience, but answers to this question will tend to be almost entirely based on opinions, rather than facts, references, or specific expertise. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.









  • 7





    I dare say that what we consider "good singing" has changed quite a bit over the last 2000 years. What we do know, from a number of stories of Jesus preaching out of doors, is that he must have had excellent voice projection.

    – Michael Kay
    Jun 3 at 16:05











  • @MichaelKay Not everyone was able to hear Jesus speaking ;-)

    – Thunderforge
    Jun 4 at 18:50







  • 2





    Apocryphal writings are just that and as such are not endorsed by the Church.

    – Ken Graham
    Jun 5 at 11:20












  • 7





    I dare say that what we consider "good singing" has changed quite a bit over the last 2000 years. What we do know, from a number of stories of Jesus preaching out of doors, is that he must have had excellent voice projection.

    – Michael Kay
    Jun 3 at 16:05











  • @MichaelKay Not everyone was able to hear Jesus speaking ;-)

    – Thunderforge
    Jun 4 at 18:50







  • 2





    Apocryphal writings are just that and as such are not endorsed by the Church.

    – Ken Graham
    Jun 5 at 11:20







7




7





I dare say that what we consider "good singing" has changed quite a bit over the last 2000 years. What we do know, from a number of stories of Jesus preaching out of doors, is that he must have had excellent voice projection.

– Michael Kay
Jun 3 at 16:05





I dare say that what we consider "good singing" has changed quite a bit over the last 2000 years. What we do know, from a number of stories of Jesus preaching out of doors, is that he must have had excellent voice projection.

– Michael Kay
Jun 3 at 16:05













@MichaelKay Not everyone was able to hear Jesus speaking ;-)

– Thunderforge
Jun 4 at 18:50






@MichaelKay Not everyone was able to hear Jesus speaking ;-)

– Thunderforge
Jun 4 at 18:50





2




2





Apocryphal writings are just that and as such are not endorsed by the Church.

– Ken Graham
Jun 5 at 11:20





Apocryphal writings are just that and as such are not endorsed by the Church.

– Ken Graham
Jun 5 at 11:20










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















12














There is no information on the quality of Jesus' singing



The Catena Aurea includes commentaries on this verse from Origen, Bede, Rabanus, Chrysostom, Hilary, and Jerome and not one of them talk about the quality of Jesus' singing. No other commentaries I found talked about Jesus quality of singing either, nor made reference to any extrabiblical traditions.



On the contrary, Isaiah 53:2 (NIV), which Christians say describes Jesus, says as follows:




He grew up before him like a tender shoot, and like a root out of dry ground. He had no beauty or majesty to attract us to him, nothing in his appearance that we should desire him.




While this passage is referring to his physical appearance being unremarkable, it would follow that "he had no beauty or majesty to attract us to him" also with regards to his singing ability.






share|improve this answer




















  • 1





    I'm not sure but I figured that verse in Isaiah was only in reference to Jesus' appearance on the Cross. But maybe it's just because that part of the Bible is only read in church right before Easter.

    – Peter Turner
    Jun 5 at 12:50


















2














While acknowledging the most salient point in Thunderforge's answer that there is no (specific) information on the quality of Jesus' singing, an inference can be made based on scripture that is exactly opposite to that which he has drawn from Isaiah 53:2.



Such an inference (of, in my opinion, greater or at least equal strength) can be drawn from Mark 7:37 where it is said of Jesus that "He has done everything well". The context is that this is said of him by those in the region of the Decapolis upon observing his healing of a deaf mute man. If we limit ourselves to applying what was said only to Jesus' immediately observable actions at that time, then this is of course no more determinitive than the inference drawn from Isaiah, however the plain language of the text tends to a more comprehensive interpretration that would encompass any of Jesus' actions including singing.



The problem with establishing inferences from either of these passages is that they are relying on what was apparant to sinful men and although appearing within inspired scripture, they are therefore on comparitively weak foundations.



An arguably determinitive inference can be made however if we consider Jesus' words in John 8:29 where he says of the Father:




And the one who sent me is with me; he has not left me alone, for I always do what is pleasing to him. - NRSCVE [emphasis added]




From this, we should deduce that Jesus' singing was (amongst everything else he has done) pleasing to the Father and therefore objectively "good" regardless of how sinful men would have assessed its quality.






share|improve this answer


















  • 1





    That's a nice piece of reasoning there. :) +1

    – KorvinStarmast
    Jun 5 at 21:49


















1














He certainly knew how.



Mt. 26:30 (Mk. 14:26):




And a hymn being said, they went out unto mount Olivet.




St. Thomas Aquinas writes (intro. to his exposition on David's psalms):




A hymn is the praise of God with song; a song is the exultation of the mind dwelling on eternal things, bursting forth in the voice.




Christ praised His Father perfectly; therefore, His praise "bursting forth in the voice" must also have been perfect.






share|improve this answer

























  • Thanks, Rev. Geremia. But, I wonder why you recommended the question for being put on hold , after answering it !

    – Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan
    2 days ago











  • @KadalikattJosephSibichan I'm not a "Rev."… My answer is my own argument, so "opinion-based" ☺

    – Geremia
    2 days ago

















3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes








3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









12














There is no information on the quality of Jesus' singing



The Catena Aurea includes commentaries on this verse from Origen, Bede, Rabanus, Chrysostom, Hilary, and Jerome and not one of them talk about the quality of Jesus' singing. No other commentaries I found talked about Jesus quality of singing either, nor made reference to any extrabiblical traditions.



On the contrary, Isaiah 53:2 (NIV), which Christians say describes Jesus, says as follows:




He grew up before him like a tender shoot, and like a root out of dry ground. He had no beauty or majesty to attract us to him, nothing in his appearance that we should desire him.




While this passage is referring to his physical appearance being unremarkable, it would follow that "he had no beauty or majesty to attract us to him" also with regards to his singing ability.






share|improve this answer




















  • 1





    I'm not sure but I figured that verse in Isaiah was only in reference to Jesus' appearance on the Cross. But maybe it's just because that part of the Bible is only read in church right before Easter.

    – Peter Turner
    Jun 5 at 12:50















12














There is no information on the quality of Jesus' singing



The Catena Aurea includes commentaries on this verse from Origen, Bede, Rabanus, Chrysostom, Hilary, and Jerome and not one of them talk about the quality of Jesus' singing. No other commentaries I found talked about Jesus quality of singing either, nor made reference to any extrabiblical traditions.



On the contrary, Isaiah 53:2 (NIV), which Christians say describes Jesus, says as follows:




He grew up before him like a tender shoot, and like a root out of dry ground. He had no beauty or majesty to attract us to him, nothing in his appearance that we should desire him.




While this passage is referring to his physical appearance being unremarkable, it would follow that "he had no beauty or majesty to attract us to him" also with regards to his singing ability.






share|improve this answer




















  • 1





    I'm not sure but I figured that verse in Isaiah was only in reference to Jesus' appearance on the Cross. But maybe it's just because that part of the Bible is only read in church right before Easter.

    – Peter Turner
    Jun 5 at 12:50













12












12








12







There is no information on the quality of Jesus' singing



The Catena Aurea includes commentaries on this verse from Origen, Bede, Rabanus, Chrysostom, Hilary, and Jerome and not one of them talk about the quality of Jesus' singing. No other commentaries I found talked about Jesus quality of singing either, nor made reference to any extrabiblical traditions.



On the contrary, Isaiah 53:2 (NIV), which Christians say describes Jesus, says as follows:




He grew up before him like a tender shoot, and like a root out of dry ground. He had no beauty or majesty to attract us to him, nothing in his appearance that we should desire him.




While this passage is referring to his physical appearance being unremarkable, it would follow that "he had no beauty or majesty to attract us to him" also with regards to his singing ability.






share|improve this answer















There is no information on the quality of Jesus' singing



The Catena Aurea includes commentaries on this verse from Origen, Bede, Rabanus, Chrysostom, Hilary, and Jerome and not one of them talk about the quality of Jesus' singing. No other commentaries I found talked about Jesus quality of singing either, nor made reference to any extrabiblical traditions.



On the contrary, Isaiah 53:2 (NIV), which Christians say describes Jesus, says as follows:




He grew up before him like a tender shoot, and like a root out of dry ground. He had no beauty or majesty to attract us to him, nothing in his appearance that we should desire him.




While this passage is referring to his physical appearance being unremarkable, it would follow that "he had no beauty or majesty to attract us to him" also with regards to his singing ability.







share|improve this answer














share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited Jun 5 at 13:49

























answered Jun 3 at 4:39









ThunderforgeThunderforge

2,91011759




2,91011759







  • 1





    I'm not sure but I figured that verse in Isaiah was only in reference to Jesus' appearance on the Cross. But maybe it's just because that part of the Bible is only read in church right before Easter.

    – Peter Turner
    Jun 5 at 12:50












  • 1





    I'm not sure but I figured that verse in Isaiah was only in reference to Jesus' appearance on the Cross. But maybe it's just because that part of the Bible is only read in church right before Easter.

    – Peter Turner
    Jun 5 at 12:50







1




1





I'm not sure but I figured that verse in Isaiah was only in reference to Jesus' appearance on the Cross. But maybe it's just because that part of the Bible is only read in church right before Easter.

– Peter Turner
Jun 5 at 12:50





I'm not sure but I figured that verse in Isaiah was only in reference to Jesus' appearance on the Cross. But maybe it's just because that part of the Bible is only read in church right before Easter.

– Peter Turner
Jun 5 at 12:50











2














While acknowledging the most salient point in Thunderforge's answer that there is no (specific) information on the quality of Jesus' singing, an inference can be made based on scripture that is exactly opposite to that which he has drawn from Isaiah 53:2.



Such an inference (of, in my opinion, greater or at least equal strength) can be drawn from Mark 7:37 where it is said of Jesus that "He has done everything well". The context is that this is said of him by those in the region of the Decapolis upon observing his healing of a deaf mute man. If we limit ourselves to applying what was said only to Jesus' immediately observable actions at that time, then this is of course no more determinitive than the inference drawn from Isaiah, however the plain language of the text tends to a more comprehensive interpretration that would encompass any of Jesus' actions including singing.



The problem with establishing inferences from either of these passages is that they are relying on what was apparant to sinful men and although appearing within inspired scripture, they are therefore on comparitively weak foundations.



An arguably determinitive inference can be made however if we consider Jesus' words in John 8:29 where he says of the Father:




And the one who sent me is with me; he has not left me alone, for I always do what is pleasing to him. - NRSCVE [emphasis added]




From this, we should deduce that Jesus' singing was (amongst everything else he has done) pleasing to the Father and therefore objectively "good" regardless of how sinful men would have assessed its quality.






share|improve this answer


















  • 1





    That's a nice piece of reasoning there. :) +1

    – KorvinStarmast
    Jun 5 at 21:49















2














While acknowledging the most salient point in Thunderforge's answer that there is no (specific) information on the quality of Jesus' singing, an inference can be made based on scripture that is exactly opposite to that which he has drawn from Isaiah 53:2.



Such an inference (of, in my opinion, greater or at least equal strength) can be drawn from Mark 7:37 where it is said of Jesus that "He has done everything well". The context is that this is said of him by those in the region of the Decapolis upon observing his healing of a deaf mute man. If we limit ourselves to applying what was said only to Jesus' immediately observable actions at that time, then this is of course no more determinitive than the inference drawn from Isaiah, however the plain language of the text tends to a more comprehensive interpretration that would encompass any of Jesus' actions including singing.



The problem with establishing inferences from either of these passages is that they are relying on what was apparant to sinful men and although appearing within inspired scripture, they are therefore on comparitively weak foundations.



An arguably determinitive inference can be made however if we consider Jesus' words in John 8:29 where he says of the Father:




And the one who sent me is with me; he has not left me alone, for I always do what is pleasing to him. - NRSCVE [emphasis added]




From this, we should deduce that Jesus' singing was (amongst everything else he has done) pleasing to the Father and therefore objectively "good" regardless of how sinful men would have assessed its quality.






share|improve this answer


















  • 1





    That's a nice piece of reasoning there. :) +1

    – KorvinStarmast
    Jun 5 at 21:49













2












2








2







While acknowledging the most salient point in Thunderforge's answer that there is no (specific) information on the quality of Jesus' singing, an inference can be made based on scripture that is exactly opposite to that which he has drawn from Isaiah 53:2.



Such an inference (of, in my opinion, greater or at least equal strength) can be drawn from Mark 7:37 where it is said of Jesus that "He has done everything well". The context is that this is said of him by those in the region of the Decapolis upon observing his healing of a deaf mute man. If we limit ourselves to applying what was said only to Jesus' immediately observable actions at that time, then this is of course no more determinitive than the inference drawn from Isaiah, however the plain language of the text tends to a more comprehensive interpretration that would encompass any of Jesus' actions including singing.



The problem with establishing inferences from either of these passages is that they are relying on what was apparant to sinful men and although appearing within inspired scripture, they are therefore on comparitively weak foundations.



An arguably determinitive inference can be made however if we consider Jesus' words in John 8:29 where he says of the Father:




And the one who sent me is with me; he has not left me alone, for I always do what is pleasing to him. - NRSCVE [emphasis added]




From this, we should deduce that Jesus' singing was (amongst everything else he has done) pleasing to the Father and therefore objectively "good" regardless of how sinful men would have assessed its quality.






share|improve this answer













While acknowledging the most salient point in Thunderforge's answer that there is no (specific) information on the quality of Jesus' singing, an inference can be made based on scripture that is exactly opposite to that which he has drawn from Isaiah 53:2.



Such an inference (of, in my opinion, greater or at least equal strength) can be drawn from Mark 7:37 where it is said of Jesus that "He has done everything well". The context is that this is said of him by those in the region of the Decapolis upon observing his healing of a deaf mute man. If we limit ourselves to applying what was said only to Jesus' immediately observable actions at that time, then this is of course no more determinitive than the inference drawn from Isaiah, however the plain language of the text tends to a more comprehensive interpretration that would encompass any of Jesus' actions including singing.



The problem with establishing inferences from either of these passages is that they are relying on what was apparant to sinful men and although appearing within inspired scripture, they are therefore on comparitively weak foundations.



An arguably determinitive inference can be made however if we consider Jesus' words in John 8:29 where he says of the Father:




And the one who sent me is with me; he has not left me alone, for I always do what is pleasing to him. - NRSCVE [emphasis added]




From this, we should deduce that Jesus' singing was (amongst everything else he has done) pleasing to the Father and therefore objectively "good" regardless of how sinful men would have assessed its quality.







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered Jun 5 at 16:49









bruised reedbruised reed

10.7k63575




10.7k63575







  • 1





    That's a nice piece of reasoning there. :) +1

    – KorvinStarmast
    Jun 5 at 21:49












  • 1





    That's a nice piece of reasoning there. :) +1

    – KorvinStarmast
    Jun 5 at 21:49







1




1





That's a nice piece of reasoning there. :) +1

– KorvinStarmast
Jun 5 at 21:49





That's a nice piece of reasoning there. :) +1

– KorvinStarmast
Jun 5 at 21:49











1














He certainly knew how.



Mt. 26:30 (Mk. 14:26):




And a hymn being said, they went out unto mount Olivet.




St. Thomas Aquinas writes (intro. to his exposition on David's psalms):




A hymn is the praise of God with song; a song is the exultation of the mind dwelling on eternal things, bursting forth in the voice.




Christ praised His Father perfectly; therefore, His praise "bursting forth in the voice" must also have been perfect.






share|improve this answer

























  • Thanks, Rev. Geremia. But, I wonder why you recommended the question for being put on hold , after answering it !

    – Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan
    2 days ago











  • @KadalikattJosephSibichan I'm not a "Rev."… My answer is my own argument, so "opinion-based" ☺

    – Geremia
    2 days ago















1














He certainly knew how.



Mt. 26:30 (Mk. 14:26):




And a hymn being said, they went out unto mount Olivet.




St. Thomas Aquinas writes (intro. to his exposition on David's psalms):




A hymn is the praise of God with song; a song is the exultation of the mind dwelling on eternal things, bursting forth in the voice.




Christ praised His Father perfectly; therefore, His praise "bursting forth in the voice" must also have been perfect.






share|improve this answer

























  • Thanks, Rev. Geremia. But, I wonder why you recommended the question for being put on hold , after answering it !

    – Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan
    2 days ago











  • @KadalikattJosephSibichan I'm not a "Rev."… My answer is my own argument, so "opinion-based" ☺

    – Geremia
    2 days ago













1












1








1







He certainly knew how.



Mt. 26:30 (Mk. 14:26):




And a hymn being said, they went out unto mount Olivet.




St. Thomas Aquinas writes (intro. to his exposition on David's psalms):




A hymn is the praise of God with song; a song is the exultation of the mind dwelling on eternal things, bursting forth in the voice.




Christ praised His Father perfectly; therefore, His praise "bursting forth in the voice" must also have been perfect.






share|improve this answer















He certainly knew how.



Mt. 26:30 (Mk. 14:26):




And a hymn being said, they went out unto mount Olivet.




St. Thomas Aquinas writes (intro. to his exposition on David's psalms):




A hymn is the praise of God with song; a song is the exultation of the mind dwelling on eternal things, bursting forth in the voice.




Christ praised His Father perfectly; therefore, His praise "bursting forth in the voice" must also have been perfect.







share|improve this answer














share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer








edited Jun 5 at 17:59

























answered Jun 5 at 17:16









GeremiaGeremia

20k22156




20k22156












  • Thanks, Rev. Geremia. But, I wonder why you recommended the question for being put on hold , after answering it !

    – Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan
    2 days ago











  • @KadalikattJosephSibichan I'm not a "Rev."… My answer is my own argument, so "opinion-based" ☺

    – Geremia
    2 days ago

















  • Thanks, Rev. Geremia. But, I wonder why you recommended the question for being put on hold , after answering it !

    – Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan
    2 days ago











  • @KadalikattJosephSibichan I'm not a "Rev."… My answer is my own argument, so "opinion-based" ☺

    – Geremia
    2 days ago
















Thanks, Rev. Geremia. But, I wonder why you recommended the question for being put on hold , after answering it !

– Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan
2 days ago





Thanks, Rev. Geremia. But, I wonder why you recommended the question for being put on hold , after answering it !

– Kadalikatt Joseph Sibichan
2 days ago













@KadalikattJosephSibichan I'm not a "Rev."… My answer is my own argument, so "opinion-based" ☺

– Geremia
2 days ago





@KadalikattJosephSibichan I'm not a "Rev."… My answer is my own argument, so "opinion-based" ☺

– Geremia
2 days ago



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