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Why is the second register needed to define bit flip quantum oracles in a way that distinguishes between complementary oracles?


Are there numerical differences between classical and quantum solutions of problems such as the Born-Jordan quantization?What is the difference between QAOA and Quantum Annealing?What is the relation between this CGI device and a quantum sorting algorithm?How to create a quantum algorithm that produces 2 n-bit sequences with equal number of 1-bits?Quantum Walk: Why the need of adding “tail” nodes to the root?What's an use case of the inner product between two q-bits in a quantum algorithm?Correspondence between the Topological model and Quantum Circuit modelIs there a way to reverse the amplitudes of a quantum system?Is the Bernstein-Vazirani algorithm dependent on the specific behavior of the oracle?Does an oracle use only the eigenstates of the quantum register?






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








3












$begingroup$


If our input $x in 0, 1^n$ is given as a black box, we usually query an oracle as follows.



$$O_x|i, b rangle = (-1)^b x_i |i, b rangle$$



$i = 1, 2, cdots, n $ is the index of the input we are querying. $x_i$ is the value at that index. $b = 0, 1$ is an arbitrary Boolean value.



Why do we need the $|b rangle$ register? Why can't we have a query of the form



$$O_x|i rangle = (-1)^x_i |i rangle$$



This transformation is certainly unitary. Andrew Childs notes in his lecture that we can't distinguish between $x$ and $barx$ (bitwise complement of $x$) if we exclude the $|b rangle$ register. I don't see why this should be the case.










share|improve this question











$endgroup$


















    3












    $begingroup$


    If our input $x in 0, 1^n$ is given as a black box, we usually query an oracle as follows.



    $$O_x|i, b rangle = (-1)^b x_i |i, b rangle$$



    $i = 1, 2, cdots, n $ is the index of the input we are querying. $x_i$ is the value at that index. $b = 0, 1$ is an arbitrary Boolean value.



    Why do we need the $|b rangle$ register? Why can't we have a query of the form



    $$O_x|i rangle = (-1)^x_i |i rangle$$



    This transformation is certainly unitary. Andrew Childs notes in his lecture that we can't distinguish between $x$ and $barx$ (bitwise complement of $x$) if we exclude the $|b rangle$ register. I don't see why this should be the case.










    share|improve this question











    $endgroup$














      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$


      If our input $x in 0, 1^n$ is given as a black box, we usually query an oracle as follows.



      $$O_x|i, b rangle = (-1)^b x_i |i, b rangle$$



      $i = 1, 2, cdots, n $ is the index of the input we are querying. $x_i$ is the value at that index. $b = 0, 1$ is an arbitrary Boolean value.



      Why do we need the $|b rangle$ register? Why can't we have a query of the form



      $$O_x|i rangle = (-1)^x_i |i rangle$$



      This transformation is certainly unitary. Andrew Childs notes in his lecture that we can't distinguish between $x$ and $barx$ (bitwise complement of $x$) if we exclude the $|b rangle$ register. I don't see why this should be the case.










      share|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      If our input $x in 0, 1^n$ is given as a black box, we usually query an oracle as follows.



      $$O_x|i, b rangle = (-1)^b x_i |i, b rangle$$



      $i = 1, 2, cdots, n $ is the index of the input we are querying. $x_i$ is the value at that index. $b = 0, 1$ is an arbitrary Boolean value.



      Why do we need the $|b rangle$ register? Why can't we have a query of the form



      $$O_x|i rangle = (-1)^x_i |i rangle$$



      This transformation is certainly unitary. Andrew Childs notes in his lecture that we can't distinguish between $x$ and $barx$ (bitwise complement of $x$) if we exclude the $|b rangle$ register. I don't see why this should be the case.







      algorithm oracles






      share|improve this question















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      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question








      edited Jun 26 at 17:17









      Craig Gidney

      5,1883 silver badges23 bronze badges




      5,1883 silver badges23 bronze badges










      asked Jun 24 at 18:14









      BlackHat18BlackHat18

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          4












          $begingroup$

          Consider the last part of your question:




          Why can't we have a query of the form
          $$O_x|i rangle = (-1)^x_i |i rangle$$
          This transformation is certainly unitary. Andrew Childs notes [...] that we can't distinguish between $x$ and $barx$ (bitwise complement of $x$) if we exclude the $|b rangle$ register. I don't see why this should be the case.




          Let $lvert psi rangle = sum_k u_k lvert k rangle$. Then:
          $$beginalign* O_x lvert psi rangle & = sum_k (-1)^x_k u_k lvert k rangle \[2ex]
          O_bar x lvert psi rangle & = sum_k (-1)^bar x_k u_k lvert k rangle \
          & = sum_k (-1)^1 + x_k u_k lvert k rangle \
          & = sum_k - (-1)^x_k u_k lvert k rangle \
          &= - O_x lvert psi rangle.
          endalign* $$

          Because global phases (such as the factor difference between $O_bar x lvert psi rangle$ and $- O_x lvert psi rangle$) aren't detectable, it is impossible to distinguish between these two states. In fact, more properly speaking, they are the same state — and these two different vectors are just equivalent ways of representing it, as the differences they have do not correspond to any physical properties.






          share|improve this answer











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            1 Answer
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            active

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            active

            oldest

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            active

            oldest

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            4












            $begingroup$

            Consider the last part of your question:




            Why can't we have a query of the form
            $$O_x|i rangle = (-1)^x_i |i rangle$$
            This transformation is certainly unitary. Andrew Childs notes [...] that we can't distinguish between $x$ and $barx$ (bitwise complement of $x$) if we exclude the $|b rangle$ register. I don't see why this should be the case.




            Let $lvert psi rangle = sum_k u_k lvert k rangle$. Then:
            $$beginalign* O_x lvert psi rangle & = sum_k (-1)^x_k u_k lvert k rangle \[2ex]
            O_bar x lvert psi rangle & = sum_k (-1)^bar x_k u_k lvert k rangle \
            & = sum_k (-1)^1 + x_k u_k lvert k rangle \
            & = sum_k - (-1)^x_k u_k lvert k rangle \
            &= - O_x lvert psi rangle.
            endalign* $$

            Because global phases (such as the factor difference between $O_bar x lvert psi rangle$ and $- O_x lvert psi rangle$) aren't detectable, it is impossible to distinguish between these two states. In fact, more properly speaking, they are the same state — and these two different vectors are just equivalent ways of representing it, as the differences they have do not correspond to any physical properties.






            share|improve this answer











            $endgroup$

















              4












              $begingroup$

              Consider the last part of your question:




              Why can't we have a query of the form
              $$O_x|i rangle = (-1)^x_i |i rangle$$
              This transformation is certainly unitary. Andrew Childs notes [...] that we can't distinguish between $x$ and $barx$ (bitwise complement of $x$) if we exclude the $|b rangle$ register. I don't see why this should be the case.




              Let $lvert psi rangle = sum_k u_k lvert k rangle$. Then:
              $$beginalign* O_x lvert psi rangle & = sum_k (-1)^x_k u_k lvert k rangle \[2ex]
              O_bar x lvert psi rangle & = sum_k (-1)^bar x_k u_k lvert k rangle \
              & = sum_k (-1)^1 + x_k u_k lvert k rangle \
              & = sum_k - (-1)^x_k u_k lvert k rangle \
              &= - O_x lvert psi rangle.
              endalign* $$

              Because global phases (such as the factor difference between $O_bar x lvert psi rangle$ and $- O_x lvert psi rangle$) aren't detectable, it is impossible to distinguish between these two states. In fact, more properly speaking, they are the same state — and these two different vectors are just equivalent ways of representing it, as the differences they have do not correspond to any physical properties.






              share|improve this answer











              $endgroup$















                4












                4








                4





                $begingroup$

                Consider the last part of your question:




                Why can't we have a query of the form
                $$O_x|i rangle = (-1)^x_i |i rangle$$
                This transformation is certainly unitary. Andrew Childs notes [...] that we can't distinguish between $x$ and $barx$ (bitwise complement of $x$) if we exclude the $|b rangle$ register. I don't see why this should be the case.




                Let $lvert psi rangle = sum_k u_k lvert k rangle$. Then:
                $$beginalign* O_x lvert psi rangle & = sum_k (-1)^x_k u_k lvert k rangle \[2ex]
                O_bar x lvert psi rangle & = sum_k (-1)^bar x_k u_k lvert k rangle \
                & = sum_k (-1)^1 + x_k u_k lvert k rangle \
                & = sum_k - (-1)^x_k u_k lvert k rangle \
                &= - O_x lvert psi rangle.
                endalign* $$

                Because global phases (such as the factor difference between $O_bar x lvert psi rangle$ and $- O_x lvert psi rangle$) aren't detectable, it is impossible to distinguish between these two states. In fact, more properly speaking, they are the same state — and these two different vectors are just equivalent ways of representing it, as the differences they have do not correspond to any physical properties.






                share|improve this answer











                $endgroup$



                Consider the last part of your question:




                Why can't we have a query of the form
                $$O_x|i rangle = (-1)^x_i |i rangle$$
                This transformation is certainly unitary. Andrew Childs notes [...] that we can't distinguish between $x$ and $barx$ (bitwise complement of $x$) if we exclude the $|b rangle$ register. I don't see why this should be the case.




                Let $lvert psi rangle = sum_k u_k lvert k rangle$. Then:
                $$beginalign* O_x lvert psi rangle & = sum_k (-1)^x_k u_k lvert k rangle \[2ex]
                O_bar x lvert psi rangle & = sum_k (-1)^bar x_k u_k lvert k rangle \
                & = sum_k (-1)^1 + x_k u_k lvert k rangle \
                & = sum_k - (-1)^x_k u_k lvert k rangle \
                &= - O_x lvert psi rangle.
                endalign* $$

                Because global phases (such as the factor difference between $O_bar x lvert psi rangle$ and $- O_x lvert psi rangle$) aren't detectable, it is impossible to distinguish between these two states. In fact, more properly speaking, they are the same state — and these two different vectors are just equivalent ways of representing it, as the differences they have do not correspond to any physical properties.







                share|improve this answer














                share|improve this answer



                share|improve this answer








                edited Jun 24 at 20:29

























                answered Jun 24 at 18:43









                Niel de BeaudrapNiel de Beaudrap

                6,8851 gold badge12 silver badges38 bronze badges




                6,8851 gold badge12 silver badges38 bronze badges



























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