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Finding the error in an argument


Chain rule notation for function with two variablesThe multivariable chain rule and functions that depend on themselvesCalculate partial derivative $f'_x, f'_y, f'_z$ where $f(x, y, z) = x^fracyz$Simple Chain Rule for PartialsChain rule for partial derivativesQuestion regarding the proof of the directional derivativePartial derivative of a function w.r.t an argument that occurs multiple timesDerivative of function of matrices using the product ruleWhen to use Partial derivatives and chain rulePartial derivative with dependent variables













4












$begingroup$


If $z=f(x,y)$ and $y=x^2$, then by the chain rule



$fracpartial zpartial x=fracpartial zpartial xfracpartial xpartial x+fracpartial zpartial yfracpartial ypartial x=fracpartial zpartial x+2xfracpartial zpartial y$



Therefore



$2xfracpartial zpartial y=0$



and



$fracpartial zpartial y=0$



What is wrong with this argument?



I have a feeling that



1.) $x$ and $y$ do not have partial derivatives because they are single-variable, and



2.) $fracpartial zpartial y$ cannot be zero, because $y=x^2$ and therefore the derivative of any $y$ term exists.



How is my reasoning? I am pretty confused by this question.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    My first question for you is why do you think this line of reasoning is incorrect? Did someone tell you it wasn't right?
    $endgroup$
    – BSplitter
    yesterday







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I also will note that if $2xfracpartial zpartial y =0$, then either $x=0$ or $fracpartial zpartial y =0$.
    $endgroup$
    – BSplitter
    yesterday










  • $begingroup$
    @BSplitter the problem itself poses this argument as incorrect, the object being to find out why
    $endgroup$
    – mathenthusiast
    yesterday















4












$begingroup$


If $z=f(x,y)$ and $y=x^2$, then by the chain rule



$fracpartial zpartial x=fracpartial zpartial xfracpartial xpartial x+fracpartial zpartial yfracpartial ypartial x=fracpartial zpartial x+2xfracpartial zpartial y$



Therefore



$2xfracpartial zpartial y=0$



and



$fracpartial zpartial y=0$



What is wrong with this argument?



I have a feeling that



1.) $x$ and $y$ do not have partial derivatives because they are single-variable, and



2.) $fracpartial zpartial y$ cannot be zero, because $y=x^2$ and therefore the derivative of any $y$ term exists.



How is my reasoning? I am pretty confused by this question.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$











  • $begingroup$
    My first question for you is why do you think this line of reasoning is incorrect? Did someone tell you it wasn't right?
    $endgroup$
    – BSplitter
    yesterday







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I also will note that if $2xfracpartial zpartial y =0$, then either $x=0$ or $fracpartial zpartial y =0$.
    $endgroup$
    – BSplitter
    yesterday










  • $begingroup$
    @BSplitter the problem itself poses this argument as incorrect, the object being to find out why
    $endgroup$
    – mathenthusiast
    yesterday













4












4








4





$begingroup$


If $z=f(x,y)$ and $y=x^2$, then by the chain rule



$fracpartial zpartial x=fracpartial zpartial xfracpartial xpartial x+fracpartial zpartial yfracpartial ypartial x=fracpartial zpartial x+2xfracpartial zpartial y$



Therefore



$2xfracpartial zpartial y=0$



and



$fracpartial zpartial y=0$



What is wrong with this argument?



I have a feeling that



1.) $x$ and $y$ do not have partial derivatives because they are single-variable, and



2.) $fracpartial zpartial y$ cannot be zero, because $y=x^2$ and therefore the derivative of any $y$ term exists.



How is my reasoning? I am pretty confused by this question.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




If $z=f(x,y)$ and $y=x^2$, then by the chain rule



$fracpartial zpartial x=fracpartial zpartial xfracpartial xpartial x+fracpartial zpartial yfracpartial ypartial x=fracpartial zpartial x+2xfracpartial zpartial y$



Therefore



$2xfracpartial zpartial y=0$



and



$fracpartial zpartial y=0$



What is wrong with this argument?



I have a feeling that



1.) $x$ and $y$ do not have partial derivatives because they are single-variable, and



2.) $fracpartial zpartial y$ cannot be zero, because $y=x^2$ and therefore the derivative of any $y$ term exists.



How is my reasoning? I am pretty confused by this question.







calculus multivariable-calculus partial-derivative






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited yesterday







mathenthusiast

















asked yesterday









mathenthusiastmathenthusiast

808




808











  • $begingroup$
    My first question for you is why do you think this line of reasoning is incorrect? Did someone tell you it wasn't right?
    $endgroup$
    – BSplitter
    yesterday







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I also will note that if $2xfracpartial zpartial y =0$, then either $x=0$ or $fracpartial zpartial y =0$.
    $endgroup$
    – BSplitter
    yesterday










  • $begingroup$
    @BSplitter the problem itself poses this argument as incorrect, the object being to find out why
    $endgroup$
    – mathenthusiast
    yesterday
















  • $begingroup$
    My first question for you is why do you think this line of reasoning is incorrect? Did someone tell you it wasn't right?
    $endgroup$
    – BSplitter
    yesterday







  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I also will note that if $2xfracpartial zpartial y =0$, then either $x=0$ or $fracpartial zpartial y =0$.
    $endgroup$
    – BSplitter
    yesterday










  • $begingroup$
    @BSplitter the problem itself poses this argument as incorrect, the object being to find out why
    $endgroup$
    – mathenthusiast
    yesterday















$begingroup$
My first question for you is why do you think this line of reasoning is incorrect? Did someone tell you it wasn't right?
$endgroup$
– BSplitter
yesterday





$begingroup$
My first question for you is why do you think this line of reasoning is incorrect? Did someone tell you it wasn't right?
$endgroup$
– BSplitter
yesterday





1




1




$begingroup$
I also will note that if $2xfracpartial zpartial y =0$, then either $x=0$ or $fracpartial zpartial y =0$.
$endgroup$
– BSplitter
yesterday




$begingroup$
I also will note that if $2xfracpartial zpartial y =0$, then either $x=0$ or $fracpartial zpartial y =0$.
$endgroup$
– BSplitter
yesterday












$begingroup$
@BSplitter the problem itself poses this argument as incorrect, the object being to find out why
$endgroup$
– mathenthusiast
yesterday




$begingroup$
@BSplitter the problem itself poses this argument as incorrect, the object being to find out why
$endgroup$
– mathenthusiast
yesterday










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

Nothing wrong. Just change it into



$$fracd zd x=fracpartial zpartial xfracpartial xpartial x+fracpartial zpartial yfracpartial ypartial x=fracpartial zpartial x+2xfracpartial zpartial y$$



Note that that the first term is $fracd zd x$, which is different from $fracpartial zpartial x$. So they cannot cancel out. The partial derivatives do exist, but be careful not to mix it up with $fracd zd x$, which is NOT a partial derivative.



Actually, a better way to say this is that



$$left[fracpartial zpartial xright]_y=x^2=fracpartial zpartial xfracpartial xpartial x+fracpartial zpartial yfracpartial ypartial x=fracpartial zpartial x+2xfracpartial zpartial y.$$



Where I have clearly written down the restriction $y=x^2$.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
    1






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    active

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    active

    oldest

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    5












    $begingroup$

    Nothing wrong. Just change it into



    $$fracd zd x=fracpartial zpartial xfracpartial xpartial x+fracpartial zpartial yfracpartial ypartial x=fracpartial zpartial x+2xfracpartial zpartial y$$



    Note that that the first term is $fracd zd x$, which is different from $fracpartial zpartial x$. So they cannot cancel out. The partial derivatives do exist, but be careful not to mix it up with $fracd zd x$, which is NOT a partial derivative.



    Actually, a better way to say this is that



    $$left[fracpartial zpartial xright]_y=x^2=fracpartial zpartial xfracpartial xpartial x+fracpartial zpartial yfracpartial ypartial x=fracpartial zpartial x+2xfracpartial zpartial y.$$



    Where I have clearly written down the restriction $y=x^2$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$

















      5












      $begingroup$

      Nothing wrong. Just change it into



      $$fracd zd x=fracpartial zpartial xfracpartial xpartial x+fracpartial zpartial yfracpartial ypartial x=fracpartial zpartial x+2xfracpartial zpartial y$$



      Note that that the first term is $fracd zd x$, which is different from $fracpartial zpartial x$. So they cannot cancel out. The partial derivatives do exist, but be careful not to mix it up with $fracd zd x$, which is NOT a partial derivative.



      Actually, a better way to say this is that



      $$left[fracpartial zpartial xright]_y=x^2=fracpartial zpartial xfracpartial xpartial x+fracpartial zpartial yfracpartial ypartial x=fracpartial zpartial x+2xfracpartial zpartial y.$$



      Where I have clearly written down the restriction $y=x^2$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$















        5












        5








        5





        $begingroup$

        Nothing wrong. Just change it into



        $$fracd zd x=fracpartial zpartial xfracpartial xpartial x+fracpartial zpartial yfracpartial ypartial x=fracpartial zpartial x+2xfracpartial zpartial y$$



        Note that that the first term is $fracd zd x$, which is different from $fracpartial zpartial x$. So they cannot cancel out. The partial derivatives do exist, but be careful not to mix it up with $fracd zd x$, which is NOT a partial derivative.



        Actually, a better way to say this is that



        $$left[fracpartial zpartial xright]_y=x^2=fracpartial zpartial xfracpartial xpartial x+fracpartial zpartial yfracpartial ypartial x=fracpartial zpartial x+2xfracpartial zpartial y.$$



        Where I have clearly written down the restriction $y=x^2$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Nothing wrong. Just change it into



        $$fracd zd x=fracpartial zpartial xfracpartial xpartial x+fracpartial zpartial yfracpartial ypartial x=fracpartial zpartial x+2xfracpartial zpartial y$$



        Note that that the first term is $fracd zd x$, which is different from $fracpartial zpartial x$. So they cannot cancel out. The partial derivatives do exist, but be careful not to mix it up with $fracd zd x$, which is NOT a partial derivative.



        Actually, a better way to say this is that



        $$left[fracpartial zpartial xright]_y=x^2=fracpartial zpartial xfracpartial xpartial x+fracpartial zpartial yfracpartial ypartial x=fracpartial zpartial x+2xfracpartial zpartial y.$$



        Where I have clearly written down the restriction $y=x^2$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered yesterday









        Holding ArthurHolding Arthur

        1,388417




        1,388417



























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