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Dual frame in Riemannian metrics.


A surface patch $tildesigma(tilde u,tilde v)$ is a reparametrization of a surface patch $sigma (u,v)$Structure equations on the 3-sphereInterior Derivative and Contraction: Kobayashi and Nomizu.Relating existence of a “potential” with exactness of a certain formFinding a basis for the cohomology vector space of 1-forms in the 2-torus, $H^1 (T^2)$Confusion about differential formsCondition for the $1$-form $fomega$, being $f in C(Omega)$ and $omega = omega_1textdx_1 + omega_2textdx_2$, to be closed.Problem to understand first and second fundamental form of a surface.relationship between $du$ and $partial u$ on a surface patch $sigma$ and its reparameterization $tildesigma$Proof of theorem egregium with moving frames













5












$begingroup$


Suppose that we have a Riemannian metric $ds^2=Edu^2+2Fdudv+Gdv^2$ on a local coordinate neighborhood $(U;(u,v))$ prove that for the following vector fields:



$$e_1=frac1sqrtEfracpartialpartial u,quad e_2=frac-1sqrtEG-F^2left(fracFsqrtEfracpartialpartial u-sqrtEfracpartialpartial vright)$$



The $1-$forms:
$$omega_1=sqrtEleft(du+fracFEdvright),quad omega_2=sqrtfracEG-F^2Edv$$
satisfies:
$$omega_i(e_k)=delta_ik$$



My work: Let $p(u,v)$ a differentiable function, I think that I must show fisrtly that $omega_1(e_1(p))=p$, i.e. $omega_1(e_1)=1$ the identity function.



$$omega_1left(tfrac1sqrtEtfracpartialpartial u(p)right)=tfrac1sqrtEtfracpartialpartial u(omega_1(p))$$
I do this beacuse an $1-form$ $alpha$ is such that $alpha(fX)=falpha(X)$. Then It is correct that
$omega_1(p)=sqrtEleft(pdu+fracFEpdvright)?$
and then apply the partial derivative, my problem is that I don't know ho operate the $1$-form. Anyone can guide me in how can I reach the result or a explicit form to operate with $omega_1$ and $omega_2$?



I'm using the book "Umehara, differential geometry of surfaces".










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$
















    5












    $begingroup$


    Suppose that we have a Riemannian metric $ds^2=Edu^2+2Fdudv+Gdv^2$ on a local coordinate neighborhood $(U;(u,v))$ prove that for the following vector fields:



    $$e_1=frac1sqrtEfracpartialpartial u,quad e_2=frac-1sqrtEG-F^2left(fracFsqrtEfracpartialpartial u-sqrtEfracpartialpartial vright)$$



    The $1-$forms:
    $$omega_1=sqrtEleft(du+fracFEdvright),quad omega_2=sqrtfracEG-F^2Edv$$
    satisfies:
    $$omega_i(e_k)=delta_ik$$



    My work: Let $p(u,v)$ a differentiable function, I think that I must show fisrtly that $omega_1(e_1(p))=p$, i.e. $omega_1(e_1)=1$ the identity function.



    $$omega_1left(tfrac1sqrtEtfracpartialpartial u(p)right)=tfrac1sqrtEtfracpartialpartial u(omega_1(p))$$
    I do this beacuse an $1-form$ $alpha$ is such that $alpha(fX)=falpha(X)$. Then It is correct that
    $omega_1(p)=sqrtEleft(pdu+fracFEpdvright)?$
    and then apply the partial derivative, my problem is that I don't know ho operate the $1$-form. Anyone can guide me in how can I reach the result or a explicit form to operate with $omega_1$ and $omega_2$?



    I'm using the book "Umehara, differential geometry of surfaces".










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$














      5












      5








      5


      1



      $begingroup$


      Suppose that we have a Riemannian metric $ds^2=Edu^2+2Fdudv+Gdv^2$ on a local coordinate neighborhood $(U;(u,v))$ prove that for the following vector fields:



      $$e_1=frac1sqrtEfracpartialpartial u,quad e_2=frac-1sqrtEG-F^2left(fracFsqrtEfracpartialpartial u-sqrtEfracpartialpartial vright)$$



      The $1-$forms:
      $$omega_1=sqrtEleft(du+fracFEdvright),quad omega_2=sqrtfracEG-F^2Edv$$
      satisfies:
      $$omega_i(e_k)=delta_ik$$



      My work: Let $p(u,v)$ a differentiable function, I think that I must show fisrtly that $omega_1(e_1(p))=p$, i.e. $omega_1(e_1)=1$ the identity function.



      $$omega_1left(tfrac1sqrtEtfracpartialpartial u(p)right)=tfrac1sqrtEtfracpartialpartial u(omega_1(p))$$
      I do this beacuse an $1-form$ $alpha$ is such that $alpha(fX)=falpha(X)$. Then It is correct that
      $omega_1(p)=sqrtEleft(pdu+fracFEpdvright)?$
      and then apply the partial derivative, my problem is that I don't know ho operate the $1$-form. Anyone can guide me in how can I reach the result or a explicit form to operate with $omega_1$ and $omega_2$?



      I'm using the book "Umehara, differential geometry of surfaces".










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Suppose that we have a Riemannian metric $ds^2=Edu^2+2Fdudv+Gdv^2$ on a local coordinate neighborhood $(U;(u,v))$ prove that for the following vector fields:



      $$e_1=frac1sqrtEfracpartialpartial u,quad e_2=frac-1sqrtEG-F^2left(fracFsqrtEfracpartialpartial u-sqrtEfracpartialpartial vright)$$



      The $1-$forms:
      $$omega_1=sqrtEleft(du+fracFEdvright),quad omega_2=sqrtfracEG-F^2Edv$$
      satisfies:
      $$omega_i(e_k)=delta_ik$$



      My work: Let $p(u,v)$ a differentiable function, I think that I must show fisrtly that $omega_1(e_1(p))=p$, i.e. $omega_1(e_1)=1$ the identity function.



      $$omega_1left(tfrac1sqrtEtfracpartialpartial u(p)right)=tfrac1sqrtEtfracpartialpartial u(omega_1(p))$$
      I do this beacuse an $1-form$ $alpha$ is such that $alpha(fX)=falpha(X)$. Then It is correct that
      $omega_1(p)=sqrtEleft(pdu+fracFEpdvright)?$
      and then apply the partial derivative, my problem is that I don't know ho operate the $1$-form. Anyone can guide me in how can I reach the result or a explicit form to operate with $omega_1$ and $omega_2$?



      I'm using the book "Umehara, differential geometry of surfaces".







      differential-geometry manifolds differential-forms






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked May 6 at 1:02









      Ragnar1204Ragnar1204

      531417




      531417




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          4












          $begingroup$

          I think you can do this by direct calculation. Fix $pin U$. If $X_pin TU_p$, then $X_p=apartial_u+bpartial_v$ for some $a,bin mathbb R$, and by definition of the $1-$forms $du$ and $dv$, we have $du(X_p)=a$ and $dv(X_p)=b$. Now, apply this to the tangent vectors $e_1$ and $e_2$:



          $omega_1(e_1)=sqrtEleft(du+fracFEdvright)frac1sqrtEfracpartialpartial u=sqrt Efrac1sqrt E(partial_uu)=fracsqrt Esqrt E=1$



          Similarly,



          $omega_1(e_2)=sqrtEleft(du+fracFEdvright)left(frac-1sqrtEG-F^2left(fracFsqrtEfracpartialpartial u-sqrtEfracpartialpartial vright)right )=-fracsqrt EsqrtEG-F^2left (fracFsqrt E-fracFsqrt EEright )=0.$



          $omega_2(e_1)=sqrtfracEG-F^2Edvleft(frac1sqrtEfracpartialpartial u right)=sqrtfracEG-F^2E^2partial_u v=0$



          and



          $omega_2(e_2)=sqrtfracEG-F^2Edvleft(frac-1sqrtEG-F^2left(fracFsqrtEfracpartialpartial u-sqrtEfracpartialpartial vright)right)=left(sqrtfracEG-F^2Eright)cdot left(fracsqrt EsqrtEG-F^2right)=1$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$












          • $begingroup$
            Wow, what a surprising clear answer! thanks a lot, you've clarified this mess for me, really thanks! +1
            $endgroup$
            – Ragnar1204
            May 6 at 3:11










          • $begingroup$
            You are welcome!
            $endgroup$
            – Matematleta
            May 6 at 4:19


















          3












          $begingroup$

          Note that $e_i$ is an orthonormal vector fields wrt $ds^2$. Hence we let $
          omega_i=ds^2(e_i,cdot)$
          which is dual frame.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













            Your Answer








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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            4












            $begingroup$

            I think you can do this by direct calculation. Fix $pin U$. If $X_pin TU_p$, then $X_p=apartial_u+bpartial_v$ for some $a,bin mathbb R$, and by definition of the $1-$forms $du$ and $dv$, we have $du(X_p)=a$ and $dv(X_p)=b$. Now, apply this to the tangent vectors $e_1$ and $e_2$:



            $omega_1(e_1)=sqrtEleft(du+fracFEdvright)frac1sqrtEfracpartialpartial u=sqrt Efrac1sqrt E(partial_uu)=fracsqrt Esqrt E=1$



            Similarly,



            $omega_1(e_2)=sqrtEleft(du+fracFEdvright)left(frac-1sqrtEG-F^2left(fracFsqrtEfracpartialpartial u-sqrtEfracpartialpartial vright)right )=-fracsqrt EsqrtEG-F^2left (fracFsqrt E-fracFsqrt EEright )=0.$



            $omega_2(e_1)=sqrtfracEG-F^2Edvleft(frac1sqrtEfracpartialpartial u right)=sqrtfracEG-F^2E^2partial_u v=0$



            and



            $omega_2(e_2)=sqrtfracEG-F^2Edvleft(frac-1sqrtEG-F^2left(fracFsqrtEfracpartialpartial u-sqrtEfracpartialpartial vright)right)=left(sqrtfracEG-F^2Eright)cdot left(fracsqrt EsqrtEG-F^2right)=1$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Wow, what a surprising clear answer! thanks a lot, you've clarified this mess for me, really thanks! +1
              $endgroup$
              – Ragnar1204
              May 6 at 3:11










            • $begingroup$
              You are welcome!
              $endgroup$
              – Matematleta
              May 6 at 4:19















            4












            $begingroup$

            I think you can do this by direct calculation. Fix $pin U$. If $X_pin TU_p$, then $X_p=apartial_u+bpartial_v$ for some $a,bin mathbb R$, and by definition of the $1-$forms $du$ and $dv$, we have $du(X_p)=a$ and $dv(X_p)=b$. Now, apply this to the tangent vectors $e_1$ and $e_2$:



            $omega_1(e_1)=sqrtEleft(du+fracFEdvright)frac1sqrtEfracpartialpartial u=sqrt Efrac1sqrt E(partial_uu)=fracsqrt Esqrt E=1$



            Similarly,



            $omega_1(e_2)=sqrtEleft(du+fracFEdvright)left(frac-1sqrtEG-F^2left(fracFsqrtEfracpartialpartial u-sqrtEfracpartialpartial vright)right )=-fracsqrt EsqrtEG-F^2left (fracFsqrt E-fracFsqrt EEright )=0.$



            $omega_2(e_1)=sqrtfracEG-F^2Edvleft(frac1sqrtEfracpartialpartial u right)=sqrtfracEG-F^2E^2partial_u v=0$



            and



            $omega_2(e_2)=sqrtfracEG-F^2Edvleft(frac-1sqrtEG-F^2left(fracFsqrtEfracpartialpartial u-sqrtEfracpartialpartial vright)right)=left(sqrtfracEG-F^2Eright)cdot left(fracsqrt EsqrtEG-F^2right)=1$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$












            • $begingroup$
              Wow, what a surprising clear answer! thanks a lot, you've clarified this mess for me, really thanks! +1
              $endgroup$
              – Ragnar1204
              May 6 at 3:11










            • $begingroup$
              You are welcome!
              $endgroup$
              – Matematleta
              May 6 at 4:19













            4












            4








            4





            $begingroup$

            I think you can do this by direct calculation. Fix $pin U$. If $X_pin TU_p$, then $X_p=apartial_u+bpartial_v$ for some $a,bin mathbb R$, and by definition of the $1-$forms $du$ and $dv$, we have $du(X_p)=a$ and $dv(X_p)=b$. Now, apply this to the tangent vectors $e_1$ and $e_2$:



            $omega_1(e_1)=sqrtEleft(du+fracFEdvright)frac1sqrtEfracpartialpartial u=sqrt Efrac1sqrt E(partial_uu)=fracsqrt Esqrt E=1$



            Similarly,



            $omega_1(e_2)=sqrtEleft(du+fracFEdvright)left(frac-1sqrtEG-F^2left(fracFsqrtEfracpartialpartial u-sqrtEfracpartialpartial vright)right )=-fracsqrt EsqrtEG-F^2left (fracFsqrt E-fracFsqrt EEright )=0.$



            $omega_2(e_1)=sqrtfracEG-F^2Edvleft(frac1sqrtEfracpartialpartial u right)=sqrtfracEG-F^2E^2partial_u v=0$



            and



            $omega_2(e_2)=sqrtfracEG-F^2Edvleft(frac-1sqrtEG-F^2left(fracFsqrtEfracpartialpartial u-sqrtEfracpartialpartial vright)right)=left(sqrtfracEG-F^2Eright)cdot left(fracsqrt EsqrtEG-F^2right)=1$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            I think you can do this by direct calculation. Fix $pin U$. If $X_pin TU_p$, then $X_p=apartial_u+bpartial_v$ for some $a,bin mathbb R$, and by definition of the $1-$forms $du$ and $dv$, we have $du(X_p)=a$ and $dv(X_p)=b$. Now, apply this to the tangent vectors $e_1$ and $e_2$:



            $omega_1(e_1)=sqrtEleft(du+fracFEdvright)frac1sqrtEfracpartialpartial u=sqrt Efrac1sqrt E(partial_uu)=fracsqrt Esqrt E=1$



            Similarly,



            $omega_1(e_2)=sqrtEleft(du+fracFEdvright)left(frac-1sqrtEG-F^2left(fracFsqrtEfracpartialpartial u-sqrtEfracpartialpartial vright)right )=-fracsqrt EsqrtEG-F^2left (fracFsqrt E-fracFsqrt EEright )=0.$



            $omega_2(e_1)=sqrtfracEG-F^2Edvleft(frac1sqrtEfracpartialpartial u right)=sqrtfracEG-F^2E^2partial_u v=0$



            and



            $omega_2(e_2)=sqrtfracEG-F^2Edvleft(frac-1sqrtEG-F^2left(fracFsqrtEfracpartialpartial u-sqrtEfracpartialpartial vright)right)=left(sqrtfracEG-F^2Eright)cdot left(fracsqrt EsqrtEG-F^2right)=1$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered May 6 at 1:56









            MatematletaMatematleta

            12.5k21020




            12.5k21020











            • $begingroup$
              Wow, what a surprising clear answer! thanks a lot, you've clarified this mess for me, really thanks! +1
              $endgroup$
              – Ragnar1204
              May 6 at 3:11










            • $begingroup$
              You are welcome!
              $endgroup$
              – Matematleta
              May 6 at 4:19
















            • $begingroup$
              Wow, what a surprising clear answer! thanks a lot, you've clarified this mess for me, really thanks! +1
              $endgroup$
              – Ragnar1204
              May 6 at 3:11










            • $begingroup$
              You are welcome!
              $endgroup$
              – Matematleta
              May 6 at 4:19















            $begingroup$
            Wow, what a surprising clear answer! thanks a lot, you've clarified this mess for me, really thanks! +1
            $endgroup$
            – Ragnar1204
            May 6 at 3:11




            $begingroup$
            Wow, what a surprising clear answer! thanks a lot, you've clarified this mess for me, really thanks! +1
            $endgroup$
            – Ragnar1204
            May 6 at 3:11












            $begingroup$
            You are welcome!
            $endgroup$
            – Matematleta
            May 6 at 4:19




            $begingroup$
            You are welcome!
            $endgroup$
            – Matematleta
            May 6 at 4:19











            3












            $begingroup$

            Note that $e_i$ is an orthonormal vector fields wrt $ds^2$. Hence we let $
            omega_i=ds^2(e_i,cdot)$
            which is dual frame.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$

















              3












              $begingroup$

              Note that $e_i$ is an orthonormal vector fields wrt $ds^2$. Hence we let $
              omega_i=ds^2(e_i,cdot)$
              which is dual frame.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$















                3












                3








                3





                $begingroup$

                Note that $e_i$ is an orthonormal vector fields wrt $ds^2$. Hence we let $
                omega_i=ds^2(e_i,cdot)$
                which is dual frame.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Note that $e_i$ is an orthonormal vector fields wrt $ds^2$. Hence we let $
                omega_i=ds^2(e_i,cdot)$
                which is dual frame.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered May 6 at 1:43









                HK LeeHK Lee

                14.2k52363




                14.2k52363



























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